As well as a list of readings and such, this page contains links to the various papers we shall be reading.1 Most of the files are available in the familiar PDF format. I trust that you are familiar with it and have a way of reading PDFs. Other files are available only as DjVu files (and some files are available in both forms).
DjVu is a file format that was specifically designed for scanned text, so the DjVu encoder produces files that are typically much smaller than the corresponding PDFs. For example, the PDF for Davidson's "Truth and Meaning" is 1.2 MB; the DjVu, which was created from the PDF, is 490K, less than half the size. The contrast is even greater in other cases.
Date | Readings, Etc |
23 January |
Introductory Meeting |
25 January |
H.P. Grice, "Meaning", Philosophical Review 66 (1957), pp. 377-88
(PhilPapers,
DjVu,
JStor)
Show Questions
Grice has two main goals in this paper. The first is to distinguish 'natural' from 'non-natural' meaning. Ultimately, Grice's primary interest is in non-natural meaning, which is supposed to be the kind of meaning the linguistic utterances have (and so the kind of meaning that language has). The second is to offer an account of 'non-natural' meaning, or at least one important variety of it.
So one main reason we are reading this paper is to try to get a little more clear about what notion of meaning concerns the philosophy of language. However, when Grice talks about 'meaning' here, even 'non-natural' meaning, he does not have in mind 'meaning' in the sense in which words have meaning, but rather in the sense of what someone means, which may or may not correspond to the meanings of the words they use (e.g., in cases of irony, or metaphor, or what have you).
There have been attempts to reduce the notion of non-natural meaning to that of natural meaning. The motivation for this is that natural meaning seems, in some cases, to be a natural phenomenon. Consider, e.g., the case of tree rings: that the tree has 36 rings means that it is 36 years old. So some philosophers (such as Fred Dretske) have wanted to start with that notion and use it to try to explain non-natural meaning, which is more puzzling. We will not discuss such issues, however, as they are more in philosophy of mind.
- Grice mentions five 'tests' that can be used to separate natural from non-natural meaning. How good are these tests? Are some better than others? (One of the tests just seems wrong to me.) One good way to check your understanding of Grice's distinction would be to try to give some examples on your own of the two kinds of meaning.
- Grice very much seems in this paper to be trying to 'analyze' certain ordinary uses of the verb "mean". That, presumably, is what justifies the close concern that some of his tests display for the niceties of ordinary usage. But is that really what Grice's focus is? What else might one read him as really trying to do?
- Grice's second goal is to offer an account of non-natural meaning. He first considers and rejects a 'causal' account due to
Charles Leslie Stevenson. Our main attention will be elsewhere, but you should nonetheless read this part of the paper (at least quickly), as it helps to motivate Grice's own view.
- Note that Grice's target here is not what words or sentences mean. It is, rather, what someone might mean by an utterance of certain words, which might diverge from what those words mean in their own right. (We'll discuss this distinction later when we read Grice's paper "Logic and Conversation", and then in yet more detail when we get to the unit on Contextualism.) Note that Grice also means his analysis to apply to gestures and other non-conventional forms of communication. So Grice's goal is to explain what it is for a particular 'utterance' (in a very general sense) to mean something, in the non-natural sense. He restricts himself, for convenience, to 'informative' utterances.
- Grice's account may be formulated as follows: S meant by the 'utterance' U to an audience A that p iffS made this utterance with the intention that A should come to believe that p as a result of A's recognizing that very intention. There are three main aspects to this account:
- It incorporates Stevenson's idea that meaning something is, in some sense, connected with trying to get someone to believe something. But, as he notes, there are different ways in which that can be done, so there has to be more to it. (Here again, a good way to check yourself is to try to come up with your own example that serves the same purpose as Grice's.)
- It incorportates an 'overtness' condition: that one's intention to get someone to believe something should be one that one intends the audience to recognize. But that is not enough, either, to rule out certain cases that Grice think should not be included. (Try to formulate your own example again.)
- It incorporates a condition that (1) and (2) should be connected: The recognition of the speaker's intention is supposed to play a role in getting the audience to believe something. Grice motivates this condition with a single example involving a photograph. Is that really enough?
(As Grice notes, there is something strange about the 'self-referential intention' with which he is supposing people speak. But this is not usually taken to be a problem.)
- Can you think of any cases that pose a problem for Grice's account? (There are plenty!)
- Grice finishes the paper by making some remarks about the notion of intention that is deployed in his account. What is the purpose of those remarks?
|
28 January |
Sir P.F. Strawson, Introduction to Logical Theory (London: Methuen, 1952), sections 3.2 and 7.1
(DJVu)
You need only read the material from Chapter 3. I've included the rest because it raises similar sorts of questions about quantification.
For a reply from the "formal logicians", see W.V.O. Quine, "Mr Strawson on Logical Theory", Mind 62 (1953), pp. 433-51
(DjVu,
JSTOR)
Show Questions
Strawson refers in this discussion to a number of 'logical laws' that he had listed earlier in the book. These are:
(6) ~(p . ~p), i.e., the law of non-contradiction
(7) p ∨ ~ p, i.e., the law of excluded middle
(9) ~~p ≡ p, i.e., the law of double negation elimination
(11) p . q ≡ q . p, i.e., the commutativity of conjunction
(19) ~p ⊃ (p ⊃ q)
(20) ~p ⊃ (p ⊃ ~q)
(21) q ⊃ (p ⊃ q)
(22) q ⊃ (~p ⊃ q)
(23) ~p ≡ [(p ⊃ q) . (p ⊃ ~q)]
(19)-(22) are all forms of the so-called 'paradoxes of material implication' (and there are some redundancies here, too). Note that Strawson uses "." for conjunction and "⊃" for the material conditional (as Goldfarb does).
The main question Strawson discusses here is: What is the relationship between the truth-functional connectives studied in basic logic and the corresponding words of natural language? With the possible exception of negation, Strawson argues that none of the usual identifications are really correct. For example, "and", according to Strawson, does not mean truth-functional conjunction.
- As said, Strawson is prepared to accept the claim that "not" means truth-functional negation, though of course there are complications involving how negation is expressed. The remarks at the end of §7, about truth and falsity, result from his view that some sentences, though perfectly meaningful, do not always have truth-values. An example would be "Alex has stopped smoking crack", if Alex has never taken crack. But this will not be a central concern of ours.
- Strawson raises two sorts of objections to the identification of truth-functional conjunction and "and". The first is that "and", in English, has other uses than as a sentential connective. The most interesting of these involves cases such as "Alex and Drew got married", where that may not be equivalent (in any sense) to "Alex got married and Drew got married". But, as Strawson notes, the identification can reasonably be restricted to the case of 'sentential' "and". In that case, however, Strawson observes that (a) "They got married and they had a child" is "by no means logically equivalent" to (b) "They had a child and they got married". This seems to show that "and", in English, can have some sort of temporal meaning.
- Questions: (1) Can you think of similar examples where the 'additional content' is not temporal but some other kind of relation between the clauses? (2) What is Strawson's argument that (a) and (b) are not logically equivalent? What assumptions does that argument make?
- Strawson raises lots of objections to the identification of "⊃" with "if...then...". Unfortunately, however, he plays fast and loose with the distinction between indicative and subjunctive conditionals. A standard example of the contrast involves:
(c) If Oswald did not shoot Kennedy, then someone else did.
(d) If Oswald had not shot Kennedy, then someone else would have.
Note that (c) seems clearly true—someone shot Kennedy—but (d) is much less clear. Conditionals like (d) are known as "counterfactuals", because the antecedent is contrary to (known) fact. No one thinks, or (so far as I am aware) has even thought, that the conditional in (d) was material.
- If we set aside Strawson's objections concerning subjunctive conditionals, then there seem to be two sorts of worries left. First, Strawson claims (p.83) that we 'use' a conditional when (i) we do not know whether the antecedent or consequent is true but (ii) believe "that a step in reasoning from [the antecedent] to [the consequent] would be a sound or reasonable step...". (See also the restatement of this point on p.88.) This implies that it would be a misuse to assert a conditional whose antecedent one knew to be false or when there was no connection between the antecedent and consequent. Is that right, as an observation about correct English usage? If so, does it follow that the English conditional is not material?
- Second, Strawson claims that the "joint assertion in the same context" of "If it rains, the match will be canceled" and "If it rains, the match will not be canceled" is "self-contradictory" (p.85), whereas "p⊃q" and "p⊃~q" are consistent (and imply ~p). Is that right? If so, does it follow that the English conditional is not material?
- Perhaps most surprisingly, Strawson rejects the identification between "∨" and "or". He gives two very different sorts of reasons, both of which involve the rejection of the inference from P to "P or Q". What are these? How do they differ? What argument does Strawson have for the claim that "P or Q" can be true even if "Q or P" is not true?
|
30 January |
H.P. Grice, "Logic and Conversation", in Studies in the Ways of Words (Cambridge MA: Harvard University Press, 1989), pp. 22-40
(DjVu)
You may well notice a sort of casual sexism at certain points in this paper. Unfortunately, that was not uncommon when this lecture was originally given (1966-67)—and, shockingly enough, for some time after that, too.
Show Questions
Grice's central goal in this paper is to distinguish what is "strictly and literally said" in an utterance from other things that might be "meant" or "communicated" in the making of that utterance and, in particular, to articulate a notion of what is implicated by an utterance that is not part of what is said but is part of what is 'meant'.
As you will see at the outset, Grice's target here is, in part, Strawson. He does not, in this lecture, however, actually formulate his reply to Strawson. His target is really more general, though. There was a common sort of claim at this time that Grice also wants to oppose. For example, people would often say such things as that it is only appropriate to say "X knows that p" if there is some doubt whether p, so "X knows that p" is only true if there is some doubt; "X performed action A voluntarily", only if there is some question whether X's action was coerced; and so forth. In a larger sense, then, Grice is interested in the question when facts about 'correct usage' are facts about meaning and when they are not.
|
1 February |
Discussion |
4 February |
Donald Davidson, "Theories of Meaning and Learnable Languages", in his Inquiries into Truth and Interpretation (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 1984), pp. 3-15
(PhilPapers,
DjVu); originally published in 1965
Show Questions
What is distinctive of language, as opposed to other forms of communication, is that words have "conventional meaning" as Grice put it, and that this meaning is partly determinative of one core part of the meaning of an utterance: what is said. But note that we think of both individual words and sentences as having meaning: Somehow, it seems, the meanings of the words in the sentence "Snow is white" 'combine' to give one the meaning of the sentence. The central question of the next couple papers we will read is what all that really means: What is sentence meaning? What is word meaning? And how do the meanings of words "combine"?
In this paper,
Davidson is concerned to motivate what has come to be called the
"principle of compositionality", which asserts that the meaning of a sentence is a function of the meaning of the words of which it is composed, and of how that sentence is composed from those words. Additionally, he argues that compositionality imposes genuine constraints on theories of meaning, i.e., that some theories of how some constructions work can be ruled out on the ground that they conflict with compositionality.
- Davidson begins by considering a dispute between Strawson and Quine over whether there could be a natural language that contained no singular terms (roughly, names of objects). You need not worry too much about the details of this discussion. Davidson's main point is just that claims about what is required for a language to be learned are empirical and cannot be established a priori. We'll discuss this point in much more detail later, when we read Chomsky.
- At the beginning of section II, Davidson outlines, very quickly, a set of considerations that are supposed to motivate compositionality. He first introduces an analogy with syntax: It must be possible, he says, for us to "define a predicate of expressions...that picks out the class of meaningful expressions", that is, roughly, the grammatical ones. He does not explain why, but the thought, presumably, is that this is something that ordinary speakers know (e.g., which expressions are grammatical sentences of their language), and so that there is some answer to the question how they are able to tell whether an expression is a (grammatical) sentence, and so (in principle) that we could tell some story about what features of an expression make it a sentence (or not).
- Similarly, then, for semantics (the study of meaning): Ordinary speakers are able to determine, even of sentences they have never previously encountered, what those sentences mean; there must be some way they do this; there must be some story to be told about how; the only reasonable hypothesis seems to be that they know what the words comprising some "novel sentence" mean, and they are able to put those word-meanings together to determine the meaning of the sentence.
- Consider now a language that (i) contained, as natural languages do, infinitely many sentences and (ii) did not satisfy the principle of compositionality, so that there was no story to be told about how one could generate, from some finite basis (of word-meanings), the meanings of all the sentences of that language. Then, Davidson claims, the language would be unlearnable in principle. What is his argument for this claim?
- Davidson goes on to argue that English, e.g., must contain finitely many "semantic primitives" from which the meanings of all other expressions can be generated. To what extent does the argument depend upon there really being infinitely many sentences of English? Are there really infinitely many sentences of English? In what sense? Does each of us actually understand infinitely many sentences? In what sense?
- Davidson gives four examples of theses philosophers have held about language that would imply that English contains infinitely many semantic primitives. We will work through Davidson's discussion of quotation in class, in some detail. The key point here is that a quotation name (such as: "snow") cannot be thought of as having its meaning determined as some function of the meaning of the word contained within the quotation marks. (This is what Davidson means when he says that quotation marks are not a functional expression.) The contained word is simply not used at all, and its meaning is irrelevant. This is particularly clear in the case of quotation names of non-words, e.g., in the sentence: The expression "snaw" is not a word of English.
- Here are some questions to think about ahead of class: Why might all of that have led Church to say that quotation is "misleading"? Why does Davidson insist that the claim that a quotation names its interior (i.e., what is within the quotes) does "not provide even the kernel of a theory"? Quine's proposal, which Davidson mentions but does not explain, was to replace quotation by a form of spelling out: Thus, instead of "'snow'" we would have: ess + en + oh + double-u. How would that help solve the problem? Does it solve the problem?
- Davidson considers three more examples which we probably will not discuss in class. But you should read the second and third examples at least, as they will be mentioned in later readings.
|
6 February |
Donald Davidson, "Truth and Meaning", Synthese 17 (1967), 304-23; reprinted in Inquiries, pp. 17-36
(PhilPapers,
DjVu,
Springer)
We'll primarily focus on pp. 304-13 and 316-8. There is also a very complicated, and very compressed, argument that Davidson gives at the top of p. 306 which you are welcome to skim. Do not worry if you do not understand it. It will not play a significant role in what follows. You can also skim the discussion of Tarski on pp. 313-6 and pick up again at the bottom of p. 316.
For more on Tarksi's theory of truth, see this relatively simple exposition that I use in other classes.
Show Questions
In "Theories of Meaning and Learnable Languages", Davidson argued that, if a language is learnable, we should be able to give a compositional theory of meaning for it: a theory that shows how the meaning of a sentence depends upon, and is determined by, the meanings of its parts. In this paper, Davidson argues that a theory of truth can play this role and, moreover, that nothing else can. This amounts (or is intended to amount) to an argument that the meaning of a sentence is the condition under which it is true, i.e., for what is known as a truth-conditional theory of meaning. This sort of view is well represented in the history of analytic philosophy, having been held by Gottlob Frege, Ludwig Wittgenstein (in the Tractatus), Rudolf Carnap, and many others.
The central question of the paper is thus: What is required to give a genuine explanation of how sentence-meaning is determined by word-meaning? The paper largely proceeds by dismissing various proposals until only one is left.
- One desideratum on a proper solution is to avoid a certain regress that Davidson mentions in the second paragraph. If you just take each word to denote some entity as its meaning, then you have the problem how to combine them into the meaning of the sentence. What you cannot do is identify some further thing (instantiation, e.g.) as what does that. For then you just have yet another thing that needs to be combined with the rest.
- Davidson then considers the problem of explaining the meaning of all terms of the form "the father of ... the father of Annette". He notes that the following two axioms will allow us to at least some of that work:
- "Annette" refers to Annette.
- "the father of NN" refers to the father of whoever "NN" refers to.
From these two principles, one can prove, e.g., that "The father of the father of Annette" refers to the father of the father of Annette. And, Davidson says, we have done that without assigning any "entity" as meaning to "the father of". Implicit here is the idea that an "explanation" of sentence-meaning in terms of word-meaning might amount to a theory with axioms specifying what the words mean that allow us to derive theorems saying what the sentences mean.
- Davidson then argues that, although we can try to extend this treatment to sentences, that will not work. His argument for this claim is known as the
Slingshot, and it is a large topic in its own right. Suffice it to say that
Frege's own approach takes sentences to refer to their truth-values. (The Slingshot purports to show that this choice is forced.) But then it turns out that all true sentences refer to the same thing, as do all false ones, which seems a bit odd if we're thinking of meaning as being reference.
- As Davidson notes, however, Frege himself insisted (in part for this kind of reason) that we distinguish meaning from reference. E.g., he thought that the names "Mark Twain" and "Samuel Clemens", though they refer to the same person, have different meanings, because "Mark Twain is Mark Twain" seems to be a logical truth, whereas "Mark Twain is Samuel Clemens" is not. So the next set of proposals attempts to work with the notion of meaning rather than that of reference.
- Davidson considers two such approaches on pp. 306-8. The first is alleged to fail because we have been given no substantive account of what the meaning of "flies" is or how it "yields" the meaning of "Theaetetus flies" when given the meaning of "Theaetetus" as argument. The problem with the second proposal is that it embodies no substantial conception of the structure of a sentence, that is, how its words are combined into a sentence. (There is
a paper of mine that develops these arguments in detail.) We'll discuss this point in class, but one important instance with which you are already familiar involves quantification: In effect, what Davidson is pointing out is that while quantifers work grammatically very much like names, they work semantically in a completely different way: To understand how the meaning of "Someone smokes" is determined by the meanings of "Someone" and "smokes", we need to understand this difference. Can you develop that point a bit?
- Davidson traces the underlying problem to a lack of clarity about what 'meaning' is and a corresponding lack of clarity about what a 'theory of meaning' is supposed to do: We want the theory to show us how the meaning of a sentence is determined by the meanings of its parts, but we do not even seem to know what kind of thing the meaning of a word or sentence is! (I.e., we do not know how properly to specify these things in our theory.) Davidson concludes that the shift from reference to meaning has not accomplished what we hoped.
- On p. 309, Davidson introduces his positive proposal. It seemed, Davidson suggests, that what we needed was a theory that would somehow deliver, from 'axioms' that specified the meanings of the words, theorems of the form:
where "S" is replaced by a name of a sentence (that is close enough to what Davidson means by a 'structural description') and "p" is replaced by that very sentence (or a translation of it), e.g.:
- "Alex runs" means that Alex runs
- "Drew smokes" means that Drew smokes
The problem is that it is very unclear how to do this. But, Davidson suggests, maybe "the success of our venture depends not on the filling but on what it fills", that is, not on the words "means that" but on the relation between "S" and "p" that the theory secures. So we might instead take the target to be theorems of the form:
- S is true if and only if p
where, again, "S" is replaced by a name of a sentence and "p" is replaced by that very sentence. (This is Tarski's "Convention T" which says, more or less, that such sentences will always be true.) What we want, that is to say, is for our theory to deliver such results as:
- "Alex runs" is true iff Alex runs
- "Drew smokes" is true iff Drew smokes
on the basis, again, of 'axioms' specifying the meanings of the words. Note that, on this approach, saying what a sentence means amounts to saying what is required if it is to be true, i.e.: the meaning of a sentence is the condition for it to be true, its 'truth-condition'.
- The great advantage to this proposal, for Davidson, is that we have some idea from logic how to do this, at least for a reasonable range of sentences, thus:
- "Alex" refers to Alex
- The extension of "runs" is the set of things that run
- A sentence of the form "name one-place-predicate" is true iff the thing to which the name refers is in the extension of the predicate
Those three principles imply that "Alex runs" is true iff Alex runs. And we can do similar things for relational predicates, like "loves", and even for quantifiers (although the formal details get messy in that case).
As it happens, Davidson prefers a slightly different theory:
- "(1) runs" is true of x iff x runs
- "t F" is true iff the predicate "F" is true of the thing to which "t" refers
We'll see other people talk this way, but for now the difference will not matter. This is more or less how
Alfred Tarski did things. Davidson mentions him here because he is the one who first sorted out all the details (though most of them are already present in Frege).
- Question: Does Davidson really have an argument for this proposal?
- On pp. 311-2, Davidson considers an important objection, one that hearkens back to the Slingshot. Both the following sentences are true:
- "Snow is white" is true iff snow is white
- "Snow is white" is true iff grass is green
(That is because "iff" here is the material conditional.) For all that has been said so far, then, a theory that yielded the latter would be as good as one that yielded the former. But surely that has to be wrong? Surely the latter gets the meaning of "Snow is white" wrong? What is Davidson's response? How good is it? (We will consider this issue in more detail in a week or so.)
The end of the paper is a catalog of open problems that such an approach to semantics suggests. Why, in particular, does "Bardot is a good actress" pose a problem? How is that similar to or different from the problem posed by "Katelyn is a tall gymnast"? (Hint: She might be short for a 21-year old woman.)
|
8 February |
Sir P.F. Strawson, "Meaning and Truth", in his Logico-Linguistic Papers (London: Methuen, 1971), pp. 170-89
(PhilPapers,
DjVu)
Topics for first short paper announced
In case you are curious about the beginning, this was Strawson's "inaugural lecture" when he became the Waynflete Professor of Metaphysical Philosophy at Oxford. It is customary on such occasions to praise one's predecessor, in this case, Gilbert Ryle.
Show Questions
Strawson is concerned in this paper to mediate a dispute between two approaches to questions about meaning. As you will see, he is not exactly a neutral party.
- The central question, as Strawson sees it, concerns meta-semantics: what it is (a metaphysical question) for sentences to have meaning (to have semantic properties)? What is it for it to mean the specific thing it does? As Strawson sees it, there are two broad approaches to the problem, represented by Grice and Davidson (among others).
- The 'theorists of communication intention' hold that a sentence's meaning what it does consists, somehow, in speakers' communicative intentions: their using that sentence with the intention to communicate some particular proposition. Of course, that will not always be true (due to implicature, irony, and the like), but the hope is that those issues can be finessed somehow. Strawson sketches some of the ideas on pp. 173-6, but you need not worry too much about them. The crucial issue does not lie there (at least according to Strawson).
- The 'theorists of formal semantics', on the other hand, hold that there are 'rules' that determine the meaning of sentences but that these rules are not, in any sense, rules for communicating. These are 'rules' that fix truth-conditions. As Strawson sees it, Davidson's claim is that someone who knows the truth-condition of a sentence knows what it means, without necessarily having any idea how that sentence might be used to communicate with someone.
- On p. 179, Strawson arrives at what he takes to be the crucial question: how the notion of truth-condition might be explained, without any appeal to the notion of a communicative intention. Or, more precisely, how the notion of truth is to be explained. What Strawson initially suggests is that truth should be regarded, primarily, as a property of 'sayings', characterized roughly as follows: "One who makes a statement or assertion makes a true statement if and only if things are as, in making that statement, he states them to be" (p. 180). If so, Strawson continues, then the very notion of truth (as applied to sayings) is bound up with the notion of what is stated by someone who makes a given utterance. And that, one might think, can only be explained in terms of the notion of 'making a statement' itself, that is, in terms of that sort of 'speech act', which is, in the normal case, performed with certain communicative intentions. Indeed, Strawson suggests, what it is to 'make a statement' is, at least in the normal case, to speak with such intentions.
- On this conception, then, the 'rules' that determine the meaning of a sentence determine what that sentence can conventionally be used to say, in Grice's sense, and so what that sentence might (in otherwise unexceptional circumstances) be used to mean or communicate (see p. 181).
- I think the line of thought here might be articulated as follows:
- An utterance of "Snow is white" is true iff what the utter states to be the case is in fact the case. (Connection between truth and stating.)
- An utterance of "Snow is white" is true iff snow is white. (The 'rule' for that sentence.)
- What is in fact the case if things are as someone who utters "Snow is white" states them to be is that snow is white. (From 1 and 2.)
- How things are stated to be by someone who utters "Snow is white" is that snow is white. (From 3.)
So it is in that way that the 'rule' fixes what is stated. Does that seem right? What is less clear is why there is any need for a reference to communicative intentions here.
- In some ways, Strawson's formulation of the "crucial question" is imprecise. What is really at issue here is not so much the notion of truth-condition but what it is for a given utterance to have a certain truth-condition. To answer that question, we do need to know, among other things, what it is for an utterance to be true.
- The discussion on pp. 182-3 pushes the issue from a slightly different direction, noting that merely 'associating' the sentence "Snow is white" (say) with the 'state of affairs' of snow's being white cannot suffice. The discussion recalls, for me, an example due to Sir Michael Dummett. Suppose that we take Davidson's theory but substitute some nonsense word for "true", say, "alby". So we have such theorems as: "Snow is white" is alby iff snow is white. Clearly, this does not carry any information about the meaning of "Snow is white". But why not? What was it about the use of the word "true" that was so important? Why should truth-conditions seem to have any essential connection with meaning as opposed (to recall issues from Grice) to the sorts of conditions for appropriate utterance that are fixed by the Co-operative Principle and the maxims? or anything else?
- Seeing no possibility of progress in that direction, Strawson offers the formal semanticists another option: to connect the notion of 'what is stated' not with the notion of belief-communication but rather with the notion of belief-expression, where expressing a belief need not involve any intention to communicate it to someone else. So, on this account, "...the meaning-determining rules for a sentence of the language are the rules which determine what belief is conventionally articulated by one who...utters the sentence (p. 184). (Chomsky, to whom Strawson also refers, has certainly made this kind of suggestion.)
- The main objection Strawson pushes here (on pp. 185-6) is that it less clear that it might seem what 'expressing a belief' really is. The really important point is that it cannot be something one does with the intention of getting other people to think one has that belief. That would be a communicative intention, which is what we're supposed to be trying to avoid. But if we don't think of it that way, then what is it?
- Strawson goes on to suggest that, even waiving that point, such a view would make it a mystery why people who live in the same area tend to speak the same language, rather than all having their own way of expressing their beliefs. The thought, I take it, is that, if it's just incidental whether one's expressions of belief are understood as such by other people, then why can't one just have one's own special way of expressing one's beliefs? But Strawson does not really have much to say about this matter, other than that it seems to him to lead to a view that is "too perverse and arbitrary to satisfy the requirements of an acceptable theory" (p. 188). But this issue, though interesting in its own right, is very complex and, as we shall see, the theorists of formal semantics will have wanted to get off this train long before it reached this station.
That said, the issue is dear to my own heart, and I've written on it, in this paper.
|
11 February |
David Lewis, "Languages and Language", Minnesota Studies in the Philosophy of Science 7 (1975), pp. 3-35 (reprinted in Lewis's Philosophical Papers, vol.1 (New York: Oxford University Press, 1983), pp. 163-88)
(PhilPapers,
DjVu,
DjVu of Reprint,
Minnesota Studies (currently broken?))
You should concentrate on pp. 3-10 (163-9 of the reprint), in which Lewis summarizes a modified version of the account of linguistic meaning given in his book Convention (Cambridge MA: Harvard University Press, 1969), and pp. 17-23 (pp. 174-9), where Lewis discusses a series of objections connected to compositionality. You are of course free to read the rest, but this is a long and complicated paper, and that much will be more than enough to keep us busy.
Show Questions
Lewis here offers a different perspective on the sorts of questions that exercise Strawson in "Meaning and Truth". Lewis himself advertises it as a 'synthesis' of the two sorts of positions that Strawson considers (although he does not mention Strawson, and this paper actually pre-dates Strawson's, though it was only published later). In particular, Lewis argues that (what he calls) languages, which are the concern of "formal semanticists", are central to an account of (what he calls) langauge, which is the social phenomenon of concern to philosophers like Grice. In particular, Lewis wants to explain what it is for a sentence to have a certain meaning in a given speech community by analyzing the relation: L is the language used by some population P, where that relation is itself explained in terms of a particular convention that prevails in P. In the background is a general account of what a convention is.
- Lewis suggests that we think of a language, as far as meaning is concerned, as a function from sentences to 'meanings', which he takes to be truth-conditions. Following many then, and inspiring many now, he suggests that we may think of truth-conditions as sets of "possible worlds" (situations, circumstances, ways that the world might be). So, e.g, the truth-condition of "Dogs meow" is the set of possible worlds in which dogs meow. Note that this is an entirely formal notion.
- The notion of language as a social phenomenon is harder to characterize, but Lewis does so in which should, at this point, be recognizably Gricean terms. What he emphasizes more than Grice does is the conventional character of the association between "sounds" and certain kinds of communicative intentions.
- Lewis then offers a philosophical analysis of the general notion of a convention. Whether it is correct is a controversial issue in its own right, quite independent of questions about language. So we'll not pursue that issue and, for now, let Lewis have this analysis. Test your understanding of the definition by explaining, say, why, according to it, it really is a convention (in the US) to drive on the right.
- On pp. 7-8 (pp. 166-7), Lewis turns to the question what connects languages (as formal objects) with language (the social phenomenon). His answer is: certain kinds of conventions. As usual, Lewis focuses on informative uses of language (assertion and the like). The trick is to say what the convention is. To focus on just one sentence: Lewis's proposal is S means that p in the population P iff there prevails amongst the members of P a convention (i) to utter S only if one believes that p and (ii) to "tend to respond" to someone else's utterance of S by coming to believe that p.
- Quick question: Why not "iff" in (i)? Less quick question: Might it be better to modify (ii) so that people tend to believe that the speaker believes that p? Why or why not? (If you look closely at the two papers from Grice that we read, you will see that his view changes between them in exactly this way.) Paper- or book-length question: How exactly is Lewis's view related to the Grice-Strawson view?
- On pp. 8-9 (pp. 167-8), Lewis argues that, if some language L is used by a population P, then there always will be convention of truthfulness and trust in L that prevail in P. The argument consists in checking that the six conditions that characterize conventions are all satisfied. It would be worth working through these for the case of a single sentence. Must all these conditions be satisfied? That is: Are there really conventions of truthfulness and trust?
- On pp. 17-23 (pp. 175-9), Lewis considers a series of objections based upon the fact that languages, as he describes them, only pair sentences with meanings and do not involve any sort of compositionality. The first of these is clearly a version of Davidson's main idea in "Theories of Meaning and Learnable Languages". In response, Lewis articulates an account of what (perhaps following Noam Chomsky) he calls grammars. These assign meanings to sub-sentential components of sentences (i.e., words, roughly) and explains how these combine to determine the meanings of complete sentences. The details are not crucial, so you can skim pp. 18-19 (pp. 175-6), until the objection is re-iterated.
- The new version is: We need to be able to say that grammars are used by populations, not just languages, i.e., that words have certain meanings for speakers, not just sentences. In response, Lewis says that he simply does not know how to make sense of that idea or, more precisely, that he does not know what a convention to use a certain grammar would be like. (On pp. 22-3 (pp. 178-9), he insists that it cannot be a convention to use a word with a certain meaning.) Of course, one might reply that that only reveals a limitation of the notion of convention. But what other option might there be?
- The second objection again seems to echo Davidson: If we want to explain how it is that speakers can have an 'infinite capacity' to understand novel sentences, then we need to think of them as 'knowing' grammars, i.e., knowing what their words mean and how those combine to determine sentence meanings. Lewis's response is that this is an empirical hypothesis that has no role in an analysis of what it is for a language to be used by a population. What does this say about how Lewis understands his project?
Oddly enough, Davidson ends up holding a similar view in
" Reality Without Reference", but I have never understood how to reconcile that view with what he argues in TMLL.
|
13 February |
Donald Davidson, "Radical Interpretation", Dialectica 27 (1973), pp. 314-328 (also in Inquiries, pp. 125-39)
(DjVu,
Wiley Online)
Optional: John Foster, "Meaning and Truth-Theory", in G. Evans and J. McDowell, eds., Truth and Meaning: Essays in Semantics (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 1976), pp. 1-32
(DjVu);
Donald Davidsion, "Reply to Foster", in Truth and Meaning, pp. 33-42, and reprinted in Inquiries, pp. 171-9
(DjVu,
PDF). Davidson's treatment owes, as he notes, a great deal to Quine's notion of radical translation, for which see W.V.O. Quine, Word and Object (Cambridge MA: MIT Press, 1960), Ch. 2. For a somewhat different approach to the same problem, see David Lewis, "Radical Interpretation", Synthese 23 (1974), pp. 331-44
(JSTOR,
DjVu).
Show Questions
Recall that, in "Truth and Meaning", Davidson observed that, of course, both of these "T-sentences" are correct:
- "Snow is white" is true iff snow is white
- "Snow is white" is true iff grass is green
But, whereas the former seems in some sense to 'give the meaning' of the sentence
"Snow is white", the latter does not. So it cannot, in general, be true that a correct T-sentence is also meaning-giving. To put it slightly differently, the inference:
- S is true iff p
- So, S means that p
is utterly invalid. But one might think that if we add some additional premise, then the inference would be valid. Davidson's suggestion in "Truth and Meaning" was that (2) above cannot be compositionally derived. But John Foster observed, in the optional reading mentioned above, that
- "Snow is white" is true iff snow is white and grass is green
can be compositionally derived. (Just say that "is white" is true of x iff x is white and grass is green, instead of just if x is white. Any extensional equivalent will do.) This has come to be called the Foster problem. Davidson, as it happened, also discovered this problem for himself, and "Radical Interpretation" is (among other things) his attempt to solve it. (He also addresses it in "Reply To Foster", which is the other optional reading.)
Davidson mentions in the paper a notion he calls satisfaction. This notion comes from Tarski, and it is a purely technical tool. It is just what we call, in logic, "truth under an assignment of objects to variables". So if we have a formula, say "x > y", where ">" means what it usually does, then we would say, in Phil 0540, that the formula is true when "x" is assigned 5 and "y" is assigned 3, but false if "x" is assigned 5 and "y" is assigned 7. Tarski simplifies this (in one sense) by thinking of the variables as coming in some fixed order, which is easiest if we think of them as being x1, x2, x3, etc. Then, instead of our needing to assign objects to variables, we can think of ourselves as just being given a sequence of objects, e.g., <5,3,4,6,...>. The first thing in the sequence goes with x1, the second thing with x2, etc. These sequences are sometimes thought of as infinite, i.e., as assigning objects to all the variables, even though only finitely many variables will ever be involved at any one time.
So Tarski would say: The sequence <5,3,4,6,...> satisfies the formula "x1 > x2", but the sequence <5,7,4,6,...> does not satisfy the formula. The reason this notion is important is just because of the quantifers: To say what it is for "∃x1∃x2(x1 > x2)" to be true, we need to be able to talk about when "x1 > x2" is true, for different assignments to the variables; i.e., we need to be able to talk about satisfaction.
- At the beginning of the paper, Davidson elaborates an approach to questions about meaning. He takes the central issue to be: What could we know that would allow us to interpret (understand) the utterances of other people? How could we come to know that? As he emphasizes, these are hypothetical rather than empirical questions. Is that a problem? Could the answer to such a hypothetical question explain our ability to understand novel sentences? In what sense? Another important question, which we'll spend significant time discussing shortly, is: What notion of knowledge does Davidson have in mind here? What notion should one have in mind?
- Davidson proceeds to eliminate a number of possible approaches and to elaborate other aspects of the problem, such as the need to account for the unbounded capacity to interpret novel utterances. He emphasizes that we need not think of a theory of interpretation as defining a function from utterances (or, in the simplest case, sentences) to 'meanings' or 'interpretations', contra Lewis, but instead simply as enabling someone who knew the theory to 'interpret', i.e., to speak and understand the language in question.
- On pp. 316-7 (128-30), Davidson considers Quine's suggestion that such a theory may take the form of a translation between the 'new' language and one's own. What is Davidson's objection to this approach? How good is it?
- Unsurprisingly, given Davidson's earlier writings, the alternative he suggests is a theory of truth that issues in T-sentences like:
- "Es regnet" is true at time t iff it is raining at t.
I.e., his claim is that, if you knew a theory of truth for (say) German, then you could use that theory to interpret (speak and understand) German.
- On p. 319 (131), Davidson lists three questions about this approach. The first, whether a theory of truth can actually be given for a natural language, will not concern us (though it does much concern people who work on natural language semantics). The second and third questions are the crucial ones philosophically.
- The second question is: Can a theory of truth be verified by evidence plausibly available to a radical interpreter? The question is especially pressing because Davidson has a very austere conception of what evidence is available to the radical interpreter. It amounts to facts about what sentences are 'held true' under what sorts of circumstances. So, roughly, if Kurt tends to 'hold true' the sentence "Es regnet" when it is raining, that is some evidence for (3). Contra Grice and Strawson, then, Davidson denies the radical interpreter access to "finely discriminated" facts about beliefs and intentions. He argues for this restriction first on p. 315 (127). What is the argument? How good is it?
- The third question is: Could such a theory, if known to be justified by such evidence, be used to interpret the target language? It is here, on pp. 325-6 (138-9) that the Foster problem rears its head. It might seem plausible that a truth-theory will allow you to interpret if the theory proves (4), but not so much if it proves
- "Es regnet" is true at time t iff it is raining at t and grass is green.
even though such a T-sentence is still correct. Hence, not just any correct theory of truth will suffice for interpretation. A theory of truth that is 'adequate for interpretation' must thus meet some additional condition. The additional condition is supposed to be, precisely, that the theory is verifiable on the basis of the sort of evidence that is available to a radical interpreter. What Davidson is proposing is thus that the inference from T-sentences to meanings might be understood as follows:
- "Schnee ist weiß" is true iff snow is white.
- The T-sentence (i) is a theorem of a truth-theory that is verifiable on the basis of the sort of evidence that is available to a radical interpreter.
- So, "Schnee ist weiß" means that snow is white.
Davidson's argument that this works (such as it is) is contained in the final two paragraphs of the paper. What is the argument? One very important question, which Davidson does not really address, is: What is it to 'interpret' anyway?
- We'll spend the next few sessions exploring these issues further.
|
15 February |
Discussion
First short paper due
|
18 February |
No Class: Presidents' Day Holiday
|
20 February |
Scott Soames, "Truth, Meaning, and Understanding", Philosophical Studies 65 (1992), pp. 17-35
(DjVu,
Springer)
You need only read pp. 17-29 carefully. The last couple pages sketch an alternative to the Davidsonian picture that we shall not consider in any detail.
See also Scott Soames, "Semantics and Semantic Competence", in S. Schiffer and S. Steele, eds., Cognition and Representation (Boulder CO: Westview Press, 1988), pp. 185-207
(DjVu).
Show Questions
Our main interest here is in Soames's re-articulation of the Foster problem, on pp. 19-25, and his criticism of Davidson's response to it, on pp. 25-9. In between, on p. 25 itself, are two paragraphs about Higginbotham's view, which we shall read next. Since we have not yet read Higginbotham's paper, you need not worry about them now, but you might want to come back to them later.
Soames claims that there are basically two ways to interpret the claim that a theory of truth may "serve as" a theory of meaning. On one of these, knowledge of what an interpretive (or, as he puts it, "translational") truth-theory states is supposed to be sufficient for understanding. On the other, knowledge of what a truth-theory states is supposed to be necessary for understanding. That view comes in two forms, as well: that knowledge of everything the theory states is necessary for understanding, or that the theory states everything knowledge of which is necessary for understanding.
- Soames argues on pp. 19-21 that all forms of the sufficiency view fall to the Foster problem. The crucial argument is the one that surrounds example (3) on p. 21. Can you summarize this argument in your own words?
- The argument against the first form of the necessity view (on pp. 22-3) has two parts:
- Knowledge of the compositional axioms, etc, does not seem necessary for understanding, since ordinary people do not have such knowledge. (What Soames has in mind here are e.g. the axioms that govern quantifiers, or attributive adjectives, or whatever.)
- Even a totally trivial theory would state things necessary for understanding, so the condition seems too weak.
Concerning (i), could one grant the point and suggest, nonetheless, that knowledge of the T-sentences was necessary? What would be lost? Alternatively, might there be a way of insisting nonetheless that ordinary speakers do have such knowledge?
Concerning (ii), could one reply that such a trivial theory will at least say something about meaning even if it does not tell us everything there is to know about meaning?
- The argument against the second form of the necessity view is that the Foster problem applies to it, as well. Here again, see if you can sketch Soames's argument in your own words.
- All that might make one wonder whether the second form of the necessity view is really very different from the sufficiency view. What is the difference between saying that knowledge of what some theory T states is sufficient for understanding and saying that everything that T states is necessary for understanding? If one knows everything one needs to know to understand some language, then will one understand it? If there's a gap there, is it one that will matter for this argument?
- Soames interprets Davidson as holding that, if one adds to one's knowledge of a truth-theory the knowledge that the theory is "translational"—i.e., that the sentences that appear on the right-hand sides of the T-sentences it generates translate the sentences mentioned on the left-hand sides—then that will be enough information to allow one to draw inferences about what the various sentences mean. Soames finds almost every step of the argument to be problematic. But:
- Might it help to replace (1) by "The following is a translational truth-theory for Maria's fragment of Italian: ...", where the dots are filled by the theory? The thought is that, in that case, step (2) is unnecessary, and we can move directly to step (3).
- Regarding the move from step (3) to step (4), Soames is of course correct that any such theory will imply lots of T-sentences for any given sentence. (This is just because "p ≡ q" and "r" always imply "p ≡ (q & r)". So you can always conjoin any theorem of the theory to the right-hand side of any of the T-sentences it proves, and that will still be a theorem.) But any such view will have to deal with this kind of problem, i.e., find some way to specify what's meant by the 'canonical' T-sentence that the theory proves for a given sentence. There are a variety of ways to do that.
Does that take care of Soames's objections?
- Here's a different sort of view we might consider. One way to think of the Foster problem is as raising the question what additional premise might permit the inference from "S is true iff p" to "S means that p". As Soames interprets Davidson, and as he seems to state his view in "Radical Interpretation", the idea is that the additional premise is that the T-sentence is a theorem of a truth-theory that is verifiable on the basis of the sort of evidence that is available to a radical interpreter. So what's needed is knowledge about how the theory can be known. But if we're thinking of the theory as one that someone is actually using to interpret others, then might it not be enough if we said instead that they will be able to make this inference so long as they know the T-sentence on the basis of the sort of evidence that is available to them as a radical interpreter? So what's needed in this case is knowledge that is justified in a certain way.
- One might compare this to so-called 'rules of proof' in modal logic. In such systems, there is an inference rule of the following form:
A.
So, it is a necessary truth that A.
Obviously, such an inference is invalid, in general. But, in such systems, the inference is permitted only when A is itself a theorem, i.e. (perhaps), is known in a certain way.
- How much (or how little) help might all that be to Davidson?
|
22 February |
James Higginbotham, "Truth and Understanding", Philosophical Studies 65 (1992), pp. 3-16
(DjVu,
Springer).
You should focus on sections 1 and 2 (pp. 3-10). We will not discuss section 3 directly.
For an approach that is different from but similar to Higginbotham's, see Richard Larson and Gabriel Segal, Knowledge of Meaning: An Introduction to Semantic Theory (Cambridge MA: MIT Press, 1995), Chs. 1-2
First short paper returned with comments
Show Questions
This is an extremely difficult paper—probably the hardest paper we will read. Part of the difficulty is that the dialectical structure of the paper is very complicated. I'll provide guidance by outlining the paper and asking some questions along the way. Note that by ¶1, I mean the first full paragraph on a page; ¶0 is the paragraph continuing from the previous page, if any.
In section 1, Higginbotham introduces his own account of the relationship between truth and meaning. It is perhaps worth emphasizing that Higginbotham is looking for an account of what meaning is that is "in harmony with semantic theory as it is actually practiced", that is, with the results of theoretical linguistics. (He was himself an important contributor to linguistic theory, as well as to philosophy.)
- On pp. 3-4¶2, Higginbotham quickly sketches an account of why reference is essential to the theory of meaning. This essentially summarizes the arguments of "Truth and Meaning". (I.e., reference is the key to compositionality.) The rest of p. 4 quickly introduces the Foster problem, arguing that no appeal to structure (as Davidson had suggested in "Truth and Meaning") can solve it.
- In the rest of the section (pp. 5-6), Higginbotham articulates a positive conception of what role a theory of truth might play in an account of a speaker's linguistic competenence, in particular, of their knowledge of meaning. He proposes to regard knowledge meaning as knowledge of facts about reference. E.g., someone's understanding the sentence "Alex runs" would be regarded as consisting in their knowledge that "Alex" refers to Alex, that "runs" is true of things that run, and so that "Alex runs" is true iff Alex runs. But that is not quite all. The thought is that these are facts one not only knows but also expects other speakers to know, somewhat the way that Lewis regards conventions as commonly known. Thus:
From this point of view, meaning does not reduce to reference, but knowledge of meaning reduces to the norms of knowledge of reference [that is, to facts about what one is supposed to know about reference]. Such norms are iterated, because knowledge of meaning requires knowledge of what others know, including what they know about one's own knowledge. To a first approximation, the meaning of an expression is what you are expected, simply as a speaker, to know about its reference. (p. 5)
Higginbotham does not here provide much motivation for this view. As he notes in footnote 6, however, there is an obvious link to notions like overtness that figure prominently in Grice and Lewis.
- So we might ask: How might one's own knowledge of T-sentences, and ability to rely upon others' knowing them, figure in an account of interpretation and communication? Take a simple case: Bob says to Toni, "Alex runs", in an effort to communicate that Alex runs. How, on Higginbotham's account, might this lead Toni to believe that Alex runs? How does it compare to the way that Lewis uses common knowledge in his account of conventions of truthfulness and trust and their role in communication?
- What is most distinctive of this view, compared with others are have seen, is that it is unapologetically psychological: It is a view about what competent speakers actually know that allows them to speak and understand their language. Note, however, that some such knowledge is, as Higginbotham remarks at the bottom of p. 5, "tacit": These are not things one knows explicitly, but only sub-consciously. We'll spend a good deal of time, shortly, talking about this notion (which plays a major role in linguistic theory and in other parts of cognitive science).
In section 2, Higginbotham argues against certain other types of solutions to the Foster problem, and then argues that his own view does solve it. The first page or so rehearses Soames's way of formulating the problem. The question is: Why isn't knowledge of the truth-conditions of "Firenze è una bella città" compatible with false beliefs about what it means?
- At p. 7¶1, Higginbotham distinguishes two sorts of responses to the Foster problem, very briefly articulating the "immanent" response, but then turning his attention to the "transcendent" response.
- The transcendent response is discussed from p. 7¶2, through p. 8¶1. The idea (which seems implicit in some of Davidson's remarks about this issue) is to deny that there are any facts about meaning beyond what would be apparent to a radical interpreter. That is: If there really is a difference of meaning of the sort on which the Foster problem rests (e.g., between "Snow is white" and "Snow is white and arithmetic is incomplete"), then that difference will have to be one that "disrupt[s] communication". The criticism is that, insofar as that seems plausible, it is because we are, in effect, appealing to facts about the contents of speech acts, in which case such an account "swallows meaning whole". One might see this line of thought as continuous with Strawson's: What I need to know, on this account, to decide what theory of truth is correct for Gianni is to what his communicative intentions are when he speaks to me. (See esp. p. 8, ¶1: "...I guessed at Gianni's meaning based upon my beliefs about what he would be likely to be interested intelling me".)
- Higginbotham criticizes the immanent response from p. 8¶2 through p. 9¶0. This part of the argument is a bit easier to understand. What is it?
- At p. 9¶2, Higginbotham explains own response to the Foster problem, viz: The account outlined in section 1 is immune to it. On his account, we are actually to think of Gianni as knowing that "Firenze è una bella città" is true iff Florence is a beautiful city, and that this is what others also know and expect one another to know. This is of course an empirical fact (assuming it is a fact). But, Higginbotham is insisting, knowing that is different from 'knowing' that "Firenze è una bella città" is true iff Florence is a beautiful city and arithmetic is incomplete, and that this is what others also know and expect one another to know. The crucial question here is parallel to one asked above: How would 'knowing' one of these things rather than the other affect one's use of language to communicate beliefs to other people?
- In the remainder of the section, Higginbotham briefly explores the role that knowledge, and common knowledge, play in his account. He remarks that "...the theory of truth...is not something that one starts with, augmenting it with conditions or constraints so as to make it acceptable as a theory of meaning. Rather, truth comes in as something [a competent speaker] knows about, and the deliverancess of the theory are of interest only insofar as knowledge of them is part of [her] linguistic competence" (p. 10). This echoes an earlier remark that his account "makes use of the information that a person tacitly possesses about the truth conditions of her own utterances" (p. 5). There is an implicit criticism of Davidson here, and an attempt to re-orient the focus of the theory of meaning. What is the criticism, and what is the new focus supposed to be?
|
25 February |
Ian Rumfitt, "Truth Conditions and Communication", Mind 104 (1995), pp. 827-62
(DjVU,
JStor)
This is a(nother) long and difficult paper, but you really only need to read the introduction and Part I, on pp. 827-44. The rest is well worth reading, and I definitely suggest that you at least skim Part II, but we obviously cannot discuss the whole of this paper in one class (and I do not expect you to work carefully through all 36 pages).
See also Richard Kimberly Heck, "Meaning and Truth-Conditions", in D. Griemann and G. Siegwart, eds., Truth and Speech Acts: Studies in the Philosophy of Language (New York: Routledge, 2007), pp. 349-76
(DjVu), originally published under the name "Richard G. Heck, Jr".
Show Questions
You will recall that Strawson claimed that 'formal semanticists', such as Davidson, could give no reasonable account of the notion of expressing a belief, without appealing to the notion of a communicative intention. Rumfitt here means to answer Strawson, though he is going to argue that, to explain that notion (or one in the same vicinity), we need both the sorts of resources typically deployed by Griceans and the notion of truth-conditions.
- The first two sections mostly summarize material we have already discussed. But there are a couple of new points. In §II, Rumfitt argues, on Strawson's behalf, that the notion of truth, as it appears in the T-sentences that are suppossed to 'give meaning', cannot be one that is simply defined in a certain way. This kind of point has a long history in the literature on Tarski. (See e.g. Hartry Field, "Tarski's Theory of Truth", Journal of Philosophy (1972), pp. 347-75.
(JSTOR).) As Rumfitt says, Davidson does not (by 1990, anyway) disagree, so we need not worry too much about this point.
- The more important question, raised in §III, is whether Strawson is right that the notion of assertion, and that of the content of an assertion, can be explained in terms of communicative intentions. The question that Rumfitt presses is what, precisely, my communicative intention is supposed to be when I assert, say, that Lily is asleep. We've discussed this question before, and Rumfitt recounts some of the back and forth that led to the idea that my intention is to get my audience to believe that I believe that Lily is asleep, not that Lily is asleep. But Rumfitt argues that there are problems with that view, too, and suggests at the beginning to §IV that there is not going to be a satisfying resolution to this problem: There just isn't any intention that one must always have when asserting that Lily is asleep.
- What Rumfitt suggests is that we should abandon the attempt to explain in such terms what assertion is and attempt instead to explain a more general notion: that of expressing the thought that Lily is asleep. The key idea is to appeal to the structure of a speaker's reasons for speaking as they do, and to try to extract from those an understanding of what it is to express a thought. The main point in this section is that, whatever those reasons are, they will always have to involve (and, in a certain sense, terminate in) the speaker's reasons for uttering a particular sentence. This is what is known as a 'basic action': it is something one can 'just do' and does not have to do by doing anything else. It would be well worth trying to formulate, in your own words, Rumfitt's argument for this claim.
As Rumfitt remarks, there is no assumption here that people consciously go through the kind of reasoning he dicusses. The point of his reconstructions are to allow us to get a sense for what people's reasons actually are, and how our beliefs and desires lead us to act. This is a common and relatively uncontroversial way to think about reasons for action.
- Rumfitt's analysis is developed in §V. The key thought here is that the speaker's reasons for uttering a given sentence will, typically, include something that establishes a link between that sentence and a certain proposition that they mean to express. (Maybe one just wants to hear that particular sound, but that is not the typical case.) T-sentences are then supposed to be able to make this connection.
- We can pose the central question this way. Consider the (A) syllogism on p. 838. Why will the students learn that the Battle of Waterloo was fought in 1815 if the instructor utters the sentence "The Battle of Waterloo was fought in 1815" (that is the sentence S0? The connection between the sentence and what the students learn is left out of this account of the instructor's reasons for speaking as they do. Rumfitt's idea is that we can fill in the missing details as follows:
- The students know that an utterance of "The Battle of Waterloo was fought in 1815" is true iff the Battle of Waterloo was fought in 1815. (Why? Because they understand basic English.)
- The students will regard my utterance as true. (Why? Because I'm their teacher, and they trust me to speak the truth about such matters.)
Something similar applies in the case of the (B) syllogism. So the idea is: What thought someone expresses when uttering a given sentence is determined by the T-sentence that, as we might put it, connects a sentence to a proposition in their reasons for speaking.
- A form of the Foster problem arises on p. 841, as an objection to the analysis stated at the top of that page. The observation is that various T-sentences might appear among my reasons for speaking. (Rumfitt gives a very complicated example to show this.) The idea behind his response is that, nonetheless, among these, there will be one that is most basic. Here is a simpler case. Suppose I want you to come to believe that Alex has left, but that I already know that you know that, if Drew has left, then Alex has left. Then I could utter "Drew has left" and leave the inference to you. So one of my reasons for uttering "Drew has left" is that
- You will know that my utterance of "Drew has left" is true iff Alex has left.
But my utterance does not express the thought that Alex has left, but rather the thought that Drew has left. Rumfitt's idea is that (iii) is not my most basic reason but is itself grounded upon other things, namely:
- You will know that my utterance of "Drew has left" is true iff Drew has left.
- You know anyway that, if Drew has left, then Alex has left.
So it is (iv), the more basic T-sentence, that tells us what thought was expressed.
- There is arguably a close relationship between Rumfitt's proposal and Higginbotham's answer to the Foster problem. In particular, both of them talk about "expectations" about what one's conversational partners will know. Large question: What more can be said about the relation between these two views?
Part II explores the same sort of issue, but in connection with "taking in" or "apprehending" a thought expressed by someone else. The analysis Rumfitt eventually gives, at the bottom of p. 850, is parallel to the analysis of expressing a thought, and many of the arguments Rumfitt gives in favor of it are parallel to those that are given in Part I.
|
27 February |
Noam Chomsky, Knowledge of Language: Its Nature, Origin, and Use (London: Praeger, 1986), Chs. 1-2
(DjVu)
You can skip from the bottom of p. 28 through the end of §2.4.2, on p. 40. And you can stop, if you wish, at the top of p. 44.
See also Noam Chomsky, Aspects of the Theory of Syntax (Cambridge MA: MIT Press, 1965), chapter 1, sections 1-6
(DjVu), for Chomsky's original statement of these ideas. For a very different perspective, see W.V.O. Quine, "Methodological Reflections on Current Linguistic Theory", Synthese 21 (1970), pp. 386-98
(DjVu,
Springer).
Show Questions
The main reason we are reading this material is so that students can get a sense for how (most) theoretical linguists nowadays think about the nature of language. Probably the most central matter is Chomsky's distinction between E-language and I-language. We will need to appreciate both what the distinction is and why Chomsky thinks that I-language should be the focus of linguistic inquiry. (Chomsky sometimes uses the term "grammar" to mean I-language and "language" to mean E-language. This is an older, somewhat confusing, terminology that he had used in Aspects of the Theory of Syntax.)
- Chomsky beings by motivating the study of language from a psychological point of view. He urges that there are three basic questions to be asked, which I will rephrase as:
- What does a competent speaker of a language know that allows them to be able to speak their language?
- How is that knowledge acquired?
- How is that knowledge deployed and employed in the actual day-to-day practice of speech?
Question (1) can be asked in more of less specific ways. One might be interested in what some particular speaker knows; or what speakers of some language like English know; or what sort of knowledge is common to all human language-users (that being 'universal grammar', or UG). All these questions are empirical—including the question whether there is any knowledge common to all human language-users. But Chomsky thinks there are good reasons to pursue these questions. What kinds of reasons does he give? (See espeically pp. 7-13.) Which do you find most (or least) impressive?
- Regarding the distinction between E- and I-language: When Chomsky introduces this terminology in §§2.2-2.3, he remarks that E-language is external language, and I-language is internal language, and many of his remarks accord with that usage. But there is another distinction that is at least as important: between language though of extensionally and language thought of intensionally. If we restrict ourselves to semantics for the moment, then, on the extensional conception, a language would be thought of as a function from sentences to meanings (or something like that); on the intensional conception, it would be thought of as a system of rules for assigning meanings to sentences. Note that, since there can obviously be many sets of rules that yield the same function from sentences to meanings, languages in the intensional sense are finer-grained than languages in the extensional sense.
- Note that I-languages, in Chomsky's sense, are every bit as abstract as 'languages' in Lewis sense. But they are not just mappings from sentences to meanings. They are sets of rules by means of which a meaning can be determined for a given sentence. So whereas Lewis asked: What E-language L does a given population use? And what is it for L to be their language? Chomsky wants us to ask: What I-language does a given speaker 'know'? What it is for them to know it? How are I-languages acquired and shaped by experience? UG becomes the theory of the 'initial state' from which language acquisition begins and so, derivatively, a theory of what I-languages it is possible for human beings to acquire.
- Question: Think just of the case of syntax, where we are concerned not with meaning but just with grammaticality. How then would we think of languages on the extensional and intensional conceptions?
- Chomsky ends up, in §2.4.1, being very dismissive of the notion of E-language, as well as of what are sometimes called 'common' languages, like English or German). Is there something he's missing? Are there, at least, questions he should be taking more seriously?
(Note: When Chomsky speaks of the 'language of arithmetic' here, you can think instead of the language of basic logic.)
- Much of Chomsky's discussion revolves around syntax and, in one striking passage (pp. 41ff), phonology. To emphasize a point that may seem obscure: Despite how it will seem to you, there is no "n" sound in "bent". You hear it, but it is not really there. Similarly in the other cases: What is in column (II) represents what you hear; what is in column (III) represents the sounds that are actually present.
- It would be natural—despite what Chomsky says on pp. 44-5—to want to apply these same sorts of considerations to the case of semantics. That is what we saw Higginbotham explicitly propose to do: "I am applying to semantics a research program that goes forward in syntax and phonology, asking, 'What do you know when you know a language, and how do you come to know it?'" ("Truth and Understanding", p. 13; compare p. 3 from today's reading). How might that sort of program in semantics be motivated, in a broadly Chomskyan way? One way to answer this question would be to consider the three "basic questions" that Chomsky asks on p. 3: How do they arise in the case of semantics? How are those questions similar to or different from the ones that arise in the case of syntax?
(For those with relevant background: Chomsky clearly thinks that the psychological perspective he favors demands an internalist conception of mind and language. Whether that is so is controversial. My own view (and that of most) is that it does not. But we shall not pursue the matter.)
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1 March |
Discussion
Revised version of first short paper due
|
4 March |
SNOW DAY!! |
6 March |
Gareth Evans, "Semantic Theory and Tacit Knowledge", in his Collected Papers (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 1985), pp. 322-42
(DjVu)
You should read section III, at least quickly, as there is an important point to be gathered from it, but our discussion will mostly focus on the rest of the paper.
Evans is responding to Crispin Wright, "Rule-following, Objectivity, and the Theory of Meaning", in S. Holtzman and C. Leich, eds., Wittgenstein: To Follow a Rule (London: Routledge and Kegan Paul, 1981), pp. 99-117
(DjVu).
Similar worries can be found in other authors. See e.g. Hilary Putnam, "The 'Innateness Hypothesis' and Explanatory Models in Linguistics", Synthese 17 (1967), 12-22
(Springer),
reprinted in his Mind, Language, and Reality: Philosophical Papers, v. 2 (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1975), pp. 107-16.
Wright continues the discussion in his "Theories of Meaning and Speakers' Knowledge", in his Realism, Meaning, and Truth (Oxford: Blackwell, 1986), pp. 204-38
(DjVu).
In reply to Wright, see Martin Davies, "Tacit Knowledge and Semantic Theory: Can a Five per cent Difference Matter?", Mind 96 (1987), pp. 441-6
(JSTOR).
There is an extensive literature on tacit knowledge generally. For further reading, see Martin Davies, "Tacit Knowledge, and the Structure of Thought and Language", in C. Travis, ed., Meaning and Interpretation (Oxford: Blackwell, 1986), pp. 127-58; Martin Davies, "Tacit Knowledge and Subdoxastic States", Crispin Wright, "The Rule-following Arguments and the Central Project of Theoretical Linguistics", and Christopher Peacocke, "When is a Grammar Psychologically Real?", all in Alexander George, ed., Reflections on Chomsky (Oxford: Blackwell, 1989).
Show Questions
Evans's main goal in this paper is to try to explain what motivates the requirement that theories of meaning should be compositional, and to explain as well what might allow us to distinguish "extensionally equivalent" theories that prove all the same T-sentences.
Evans begins by insisting that, if compositionality is to be motivated at all, then it must be motivated in terms of speakers' actual abilities to understand 'novel' sentences. The question is what the relation is between a compositional (or, as Evans often says, "structure reflecting") theory of truth and actual speakers of the language. There are two options. One the weaker, one 'knows' such a theory if one acts as if one knew it. But then there is no distinguishing between extensionally equivalent theories. (Recall Lewis's skepticism about the possibility of making good sense that one 'grammar' rather than another is correct.)
The stronger interpretation is that speaker's somehow unconsciously deploy the information contained in the theory to figure out the meanings of novel sentences. The rest of the paper tries to give some substantial content to that notion.
In section II, Evans discusses a toy language with ten unary predicates and ten names, and so 100 sentences, and considers two theories of truth, T1 and T2, that (respectively) do and do not ascribe any sort of structure to the sentences of this language. Evans suggests that, considered as accounts of what a speaker of the language knows, these two theories can be distinguished empirically. The core idea is that the axioms of the theories can be associated with certain dispositions that the speaker has.
Evans specifies these dispositions using what are known as "substitutional" quantifiers, but we can (for our purposes, at least) rephrase the disposition that constitutes knowledge that `a' refers to John as:
(*) For any predicate P and any property φ, if U knows that P is true of the things that have the property φ, and if U hears an utterance of "Pa", then U will (ordinarily) form the belief that that utterance is true iff John has the property φ.
This is supposed to capture the idea that U (whoever that is) take sentences that contain 'a' to be 'about' John, to the effect that he has whatever property is associated with the predicate P. Can you rephrase the other statement similarly?
Evans insists that these dispositions "be understood in a full-blooded sense". Evans is alluding to a distinction generally made about dispositional properties. For something to be fragile, for example, is for it to be disposed to break easily. But (we ordinarily suppose) that is not all there is to the story: Something that is fragile has some other property that explains why it breaks easily. So, in this case, Evans wants us to think of (*) not just as saying something about what beliefs U will form under what circumstances but as saying that there is some underlying (cognitive) state corresponding to this disposition that explains why U forms the beliefs they do.
Evans goes on to argue (pp. 331-4) that there are empirical differences between the two theories, i.e., that there could be differences in the way a speaker behaved that would justify saying that they knew one or the other of these theories. What are these differences? Can you think of any other such differences we might expect to find?
In section III, Evans outlines some reasons for thinking that 'tacit knowledge' is quite different from ordinary knowledge (or belief). His main point is that it has what one might call restricted application: One's tacit knowledge of the meanings of words and the principles by which they combine is used only in one's comprehension of language. It is not available, in particular, for one to report verbally. Otherwise, semantics would be easy: If you wanted to know how adverbs work, say, you could just ask someone; after all, we all know how they work, right? But we only know tacitly, and our knoweldge is (as it is sometimes said) "modular" and unavailable to us outside certain applications.
In section IV, Evans discusses the question whether attribution of tacit knowledge of a structured theory of meaning to a speaker can explain their s capacity to understand novel sentences. Evans first concedes that, by itself, it cannot. It is, honestly, not entirely clear to me why. I think the reason is this. Suppose that the speaker regards some utterance of the sentence "Gb", for example, as being true iff Harry is happy. And suppose that we were to regard that judgement as the exercise of the dispositions that constitute their tacit knoweldge of the theory T2. Then the judgement cannot also be regarded as explained by her having those same dispositions: that would be like explaining a sleeping pill's effectiveness (to take a famous example) in terms of its dormativity—its disposition to make people sleepy.
But the usual response to this kind of objection is that it assumes that the disposition is "thin" rather than "full-blooded", as Evans's were meant to be. So why doesn't Evans just say that, if the dispositions are full-blooded, then there is an explanation to be had, in terms of whatever the categorical basis of those dispositions is? Perhaps this is the point Evans is making when he says that "to say that a group of phenomena have a common explanation is obviously not yet to say what the explanation is": To give a satisfying explanation, we would need to know what the states underlying the dispositions actually were. It's not clear to me how this plays out, in the end. It may well turn on large questions about the nature of explanation. (Some of these get discussed in the later literature on tacit knowledge mentioned above.)
Evans goes on to suggest that we can get an explanation of "creativity" if we embed the attribution of tacit knowledge in a larger story about language acquisition. How is that supposed to go? How does it relate to the "full-bloodedness" of the dispositions? (Developing a proper answer to the various questions I've been asking here would make a nice term paper, by the way.)
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8 March |
Martin Davies, "Meaning, Structure, and Understanding", Synthese 48 (1981), pp. 135-61
(DjVu,
Springer)
This is a long-ish paper and, although not terribly dense, difficult due to Davies's insistence upon trying to formulate everything at the highest possible level of generality. Imagine how much easier the paper would be if he simply stuck to the Evans-like example with which he begins! There is a lesson there for us all.
You should be able safely to skim from the top of p.139 through the start of part I, on p. 140. You also do not need to dig too deeply into the first three objections discussed in part I, though you should at least read through them. You can also skim the last couple paragraphs of §8, on pp. 147-8 (on mass terms), and largely skip §13.
Show Questions
Davies is interested in the question whether there is a way of making sense of the idea that a language (in roughly Lewis's sense) has a certain structure without having to claim that speakers of the language must in any sense, including tacitly, be aware of that structure. So, in particular, in the case of Evans's 100-sentence language, Davies wants to claim that, even if speakers fail to have the sorts of dispositions Evans specifies, it can still be true that the language they speak has a certain sort of semantic structure.
Davies suggests that semantic theories should meet what he calls the structural constraint:
If, but only if, there could be speakers of L who, having been taught to use and know the meanings of sentences (of L) s1, ...,sn..., could by rational inductive means go on to use and know the meaning of the sentence s..., then a theory of truth for L should employ in the canonical derivations of truth condition specifying biconditionals for s1, ...,sn resources already sufficient for the canonical derivation of a biconditional for s. (p. 138)
The kind of case Davies had in mind would be one in which someone had learned the meanings of "Fa" and "Gb" and was, on that basis, able to figure out the meanings of "Fb" and "Ga".
Note (as Davies emphasizes) that this involves what a hypothetical speaker could do, much along the lines of what Davidson suggests in "Radical Interpretation". The basic point here is supposed to be, again, that semantics need not have anything particular to do with facts about how speakers actually do understand their language.
In part I of the paper, Davies considers four objections to the structural constraint. The most important of these is the fourth. Davies' initial presentation of the objection is somewhat complicated, but he gives a concrete example on p. 146. The core of the objection is that certain actual speakers of a language might lack the ability to "project" the meanings of certain sentences they have not encountered (e.g., "Bug moving"), whereas other speakers might have that ability. If so, then it seems odd to say that the language of the speakers who cannot "project" has the same structure as that of the speakers who can project, simply because someone else could project meaning in that way.
Davies's response is to deny that, in such a case, the common sentences of the two languages (e.g., "Bug") actualy do have the same meaning. How exactly does this save the structural constraint? What does it say about how the meanings of sentences are being specified when languages are identified as Davies identifies them at the very beginning of the paper? Can we really say what the meanings of the sentences are without knowing whether they are semantically structured? That is: Is this response compatible with Davies's insistence that, even if speakers understand Evans's 100-sentence language in a non-compositional way, still the right semantics for that language is the compositional one? (We'll return to this below.)
In part II, Davies discusses what is involved in crediting speakers with "implicit" knowledge of a theory of meaning for their language. Davies first step is to introduce a notion of "full understanding" of a language: Someone fully understands a language L if she is in a "differential state" with respect to the various words (semantic primitives) of the language. The terminology here is confusing, but what Davies means is just that this speaker has the sorts of dispositions concerning acquisition and loss that Evans discusses, as well as dispositions concerning change of meaning that Evans does not mention. (This allows for answers to certain sorts of objections to Evans.) That is: If this speaker revised their view about what "Fa" meant, then that would lead to corresponding changes in their view either about what "Ga" meant or about what "Fb" meant—because what has really happened is that they have changed their view either about what "a" means or about what "F" means.
This leads to a different objection to what Davies argued in part I. Suppose there is a community that speaks the Evans language but which does not have the kinds of dispositions just mentioned. Now suppose that they come to use, say, "Fa" so that its meaning changes, but none of the meanings of any other sentences do. Should we say that now their language does not have any structure but that it did before? Would it be an alternative to say that their language only seemed to have any semantic structure before?
In §12, Davies worries that mere dispositions are not enough—compare Evans's insistence on 'full-blooded' dispositions—and so invokes causal and explanatory relations as well in giving a full account. In the case of Evans's language, for example, the claim would be that a 'full understander' would be in certain states Sa, Sb, SF, and SG such that are "causally operative in the production of" their beliefs about what "Fa", etc, mean; moreover, their believing that "Fa" means that John is bald is explained by their being in Sa and SF.
Davies then raises the question whether we should attribute, to a full understander, tacit or implicit knowledge or belief that, say, "a" refers to John. He grants, in §14, that some kind of 'mechanism' must be in place that 'mirrors' the derivation of T-sentences from the axioms. But the question is whether Sa, SF, etc, are beliefs. In §§15-17, he considers, and dismisses, a series of objection to the claim that we should attribute such beliefs. In §18, though, he offers a reason not to do so, namely: There seems to be no need to attribute anything like implicit or tacit desires with which such beliefs might interact to produce intentions. His reasons seem closely related to Evans's point that such states are not "at the service of many projects".
But one might concede that point and suggest that the emphasis on belief here is inappropriate. How would Davies's discussion be affected if we insisted upon talking instead of informational states? So we would think of our full understander as possessing information about the reference of "a" and about what things "F" is true of, but not say that these are 'beliefs'.
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11 March |
Elizabeth Fricker, "Semantic Structure and Speakers' Understanding", Proceedings of the Aristotelian Society, New Series 83 (1982-1983), pp. 49-66
(DjVu,
JSTOR)
Show Questions
One might think of Fricker's goal in this paper as to try to answer Lewis's claim that there is "no promising way to make objective sense of the assertion that a grammar Γ is used by a population P whereas another grammar Γ', which generates the same language as Γ, is not" (L&L, p. 20)—and to do so on Lewis's own terms. That is, Fricker accepts that semantic facts about a language must supervene on how it is used—on the linguistic abilities of its speakers—and that these abilites relate only to what whole sentences mean. (These are principles (α) and (A), on pp. 52 and 56, more or less). And yet, she wants to claim, each language has a semantic structure that is essential to it and to which speakers of the language bear some non-trivial relation. (These are principles (β) and (γ) on p. 52.) This is a bold, which is not necessarily to say 'heroic', view. The strategy, to a large extent, is to effect a synthesis of Evans and Davies.
There's a lot of talk in this paper about 'a priori principles governing interpretation'. This not language with which I find myself entirely comfortable. But one might simply think of Fricker as claiming that there are certain methodological principles to which we ought to adhere when constructing theories of meaning—never mind if they are a priori or empirical—and that among these is, e.g., a principle of compositionality.
Fricker begins, in section I, by rehearsing what is, very roughly, the metaphysical project elaborated by Davidson in "Radical Interpretation": explaining how semantic facts are determined by (grounded in) facts about the use of language. Section II introduces the problem with which she is concerned and argues that both Davies and Evans fail properly to vindicate the idea of semantic structure. Section III formulates an argument that the assumptions mentioned above lead to Lewis's conclusion: that a theory of meaning for a language need not uncover structure.
The main argument of the paper is in sections IV and V. Fricker concludes that "...facts about sentence-meanings are not independent of facts about their structure" (p. 60). She mentions three sorts of reasons in favor of this claim:
- Unless there were "some form of Structural Postulate requiring that sentences be seen to be composed out of a stock of semantically primitive elements which make the same characteristic contribution to sentence-meanings in all their occurrences" (p. 59), interpretation would be too indeterminate. In particular, the interpretation of one sentence needs to be constrained by how other sentences are interpreted if we're to make any progress at all.
- There are many sentences of, e.g., English that will never be uttered and yet that have determinate meanings. But if facts about meaning supervene on facts about use, then facts about the meanings of un-uttered sentences must supervene on facts about uttered sentences, and that can only be so if the language is compositional.
- There is a connection between the meanings we assign to sentences and the contents we assign to speakers' beliefs. And the latter, typically, will themselves be structured, involving certain concepts we take the speakers to possess. This "will tend to ensure that OL sentences are not interpreted by ML sentences with a greater degree of structural complexity" than the speakers are capable of understanding (p. 60).
Regarding (2), it's important to remember that Fricker is trying to argue here not just for compositionality, but that the structural facts about the sentences of a language are essential to it. We've of course seen considerations about creativity and productivity before, and not everyone has wanted to draw the same conclusion Fricker does. What is it about how she's understanding (2) that leads her to the stronger conclusion?
The arguments just mentioned are elaborated and interwoven in section V. Here, Fricker adapts Evans's proposal to generate a "transcendental" definition of the notion of semantic primitive according to which the semantic structure of a language mirrors the causal structure of its speakers' linguistic abilities. This leads directly to the question whether different speakers' abilities might have different structures, which is what leads to Lewis's pessimistic conclusion. (See pp. 63-4.)
Fricker's response is on p. 64: She wants to insist that, if speakers understand a sentence to have different structures, then they cannot understand it in the same way. This is because it will be implausibe to hold that the beliefs these speakers associate with the sentence deploy the same concepts. So Fricker concludes that "...the initially plausible thought", which we find in Davies, that "there could be structure in a language, though its speakers were blind to it, is wrong" (p. 65).
I take Fricker's point here to be a version of one Davies makes in response to an objection. Consider an unstructured sentence "Bugmoving" and its structured counterpart "Bug moving". It might be that the two sentences have the same truth-condition, in the sense that the conditions in which the former is true are exactly the conditions in which the latter is true. But one might nonetheless want to say that the meaning of the latter sentence involves a predication of movement to a bug, whereas the meaning of the former does not. The structure thus turns out to be present in the meaning of the sentence itself and to reflect the conceptual resources that speakers of the language deploy when they use this sentence. The upshot is that, even though you only need to know what a sentence means to understand it, you can't know what the sentence means unless (in some sense) you appreciate its structure (p. 61).
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13 March |
Louise Antony, "Meaning and Semantic Knowledge", Proceedings of the Aristotelian Society, sup. vol. 71 (1997), pp. 177-209
(DjVu,
JSTOR)
This is a long-ish paper, but it contains a lot of (helpful, to my mind) exposition of views we have already encountered. You can probably read through those parts fairly quickly. It's when Antony starts giving arguements against those views that you'll want to slow down.
See also Steven Gross, "Knowledge of Meaning, Conscious and Unconscious", in The Baltic International Yearbook of Cognition, Logic, and Communication, Vol. 5: Meaning, Understanding, and Knowledge (2010), pp. 1-44
(Baltic Yearbook)
Show Questions
Antony's main goal in this paper is to argue that semantics should be understood as inextricably linked to psychology: to questions about what speakers actually come to know about their languages when they learn to speak (and how they come to know it). She distinguishes three sorts of alternatives to her position: Platonism, represented by Devitt, Katz, and Soames; Instrumentalism, represented by Foster and Davidson; and Reconstructive Rationalism, represented by Dummett and Wright. (Except for the first, these are my terms.) She discusses Platonism only briefly, claiming that the facts about (say) English simply cannot be completely independent of facts about how English speakers behave and gesturing in the direction of Fricker.
The discussion of Instrumentalism and Reconstructive Rationalism, which dominates section I, consists, largely, in playing them off against one another. The latter view insists that semantic theory should be concerned with speakers' knowledge, but only with a "systematized" (Dummett) or "idealized" (Wright) version of such knowledge, not with the knowledge actual speakers possess. Antony carefully reconstructs Wright's reasons for thinking we do need to attribute semantic knowledge to speakers. She then notes (on p. 185), that what Wright keeps insisting is that there are certain explanatory purposes for which Wright thinks we need to attribute such knowledge to speakers. If not, then the attribution would be merely heuristic (and thus no different from what Instrumentalism offers). But, she suggests, "...the rational reconstruction of linguistic meaning cannot explain the rationality of human language use if the posited linguistic structure is not available to speakers" (p. 188). That is: Just saying what an idealized speaker might know that would make their use of language rational cannot show that ordinary speakers' use of language is rational. But that was what we were supposed to be explaining. How fair a criticism is this? Is there some other explanatory goal that Wright's "idealized epistemology of understanding" might serve?
Antony goes on to argue that the idealizations inherent in Reconstructive Rationalism are difficult to reconcile with the professed goals of its proponents. There is, she says, a "tension between, on the one hand, appealing to human capacities in order to justify features of meaning-theoretic projects, and on the other, ignoring the actual nature of those capacities" (p. 188). The original sin here is Davidson's attempt to motivate compositionality, and the problem this observation poses for Reconstructive Rationalism is supposed to be that it is hard to see why, if we are not going to idealize away from the finitude of the language-learner, we should think it justified to idealize away from any of the other circumstances under which language is, in fact, acquired by human beings. I.e., the question is: Which idealizations are legitimate and which are not, and why?
I take Anonty's more fundamental point to be something like this. What motivates the principle of compositionality is the fact that actual speakers are actually able to interpret novel sentences. Presumably, there is some answer to the question how they do it. Either we think they do so in a way that makes their appreciation of the meaning of the new sentence rationally justified or we do not. If we don't, it's unclear why we should think that there is, as Wright supposes, any rational basis for such knowledge. But if we do, then why not just ask how people actually come, rationally, by knowledge of the meanings of novel sentences? Of what real interest is the question how some idealized agent might do so? (As Antony notes, this criticism is very much of a piece with one that Quine makes of 'rational reconstruction' more generally.)
This point then morphs into a criticism of Instrumentalism. The discussion is directed at Quine's restriction on the data on which radical translation must be based, but could equally be directed at Davidson's corresponding restriction on the data on which radical interpretation must be based (what's held true under what circumstances). Such restrictions are motivated by claims about what sort of evidence is available, in principle, to a language-learner (or, though Antony does not mention the point, to an actual speaker who is attempting to determine if someone else speaks her language—see the first couple pages of "Radical Interpretation"). Antony argues that the evidence that is allowed to a radical whatever-er is both wider and narrower than what is available to actual language-learners. How so?
But the most interesting claim Antony makes is this one:
Considered in the context of Quine's metaphysical goals, the idealization involved in permitting the linguist an unlimited amount of behavioural evidence appears concessive to the meaning realist; in fact, it is a slick piece of bait-and-switch. The cooperative tone distracts us from the fact that Quine has already begged the crucial question, by assuming that whatever physical facts metaphysically determine meaning must be identical with the physical facts that constitute the evidence children have available to them during language acquisition. (pp. 192-3)
What does Antony mean here? What might be examples of physical facts on which semantic facts supervene that are not among the facts available as evidence to a child learning language? An even more interesting question is how, if there are such facts, they might, in some other (non-evidential) sense, be "available" to ordinary speakers interpeting one another. Here's a question that might help you get at a possible answer: Suppose that, as a matter of empirical fact, there were exactly 1000 concepts humans could possess, and that they were all innate, so that we were all born already possessing all of them and could never come to possess any others. How would that affect language acquisition and interpretation?
There is thus a common criticism of both Instrumentalism and Reconstructive Rationalism: "...[T]he epistemic strategies of 'ideal' learners are of no theoretical value to the task of understanding human cognitive competencies if the idealizations abstract away from epistemic constraints that are in fact constitutive of the learning task confronting humans" (p. 193). Yes or no?
Section II of the paper turns to questions about tacit knowledge. Antony begins (on pp. 195-8) by rehearsing some of the reasons people have found tacit knowledge puzzling. She then argues (on pp. 198-200) that the strategy pursued by Evans and Davies has a fatal flaw: It purports to justify the attribution of tacit knowlege entirely on the basis of an isomorphism between the structure of a semantic theory and the structure of a speaker's abilities: But "...isomorphisms are cheap: the mere fact that the formal structure of a particular theory can be projected onto some structure of causally related states is not enough to make it true that the set of states actually embodies the theory", that is, that those states carry the sort of information that the theory does (p. 200).
By contrast, Antony insists, what we want is for the causal processes that underlie the understanding of novel sentences to be sensitive to information about the meanings of sub-sentential constituents. And she proposes that we can have that only if we take seriously the idea that there are states in the speaker that encode the very information articulated by a semantic theory, and that these states interact causally in ways that are sensitive to that information. Accepting those assumptions means accepting a very strongly 'realist' conception of the mind and of mental processes. But, or so Antony argues, only such a conception can give us a plausible account of tacit knowledge.
Here again, then, is the big point Antony is trying to make. Almost everyone we have read seems willing to accept something like the following reasoning, which Fricker makes explicit: Whatever the truth about what expressions of natural language mean, that truth must somehow be knowable on the basis of the sort of evidence that's available to a child learning language, or to an ordinary speaker who is just trying to make sure that their conversational partners really do mean what they seem to mean. So, in some sense, meaning must be 'manifest' in linguistic behavior. Different people seem to have different ideas what 'linguistic behavior' is, and then they argue about how determinate meaning really is, whether we can really think of words (and not just sentences) as having meaning, and so forth. But Antony thinks this whole set-up is a con game. Why?
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15 March |
Robyn Carston, "Implicature, Explicature, and Truth-theoretic Semantics", in R. Kempson, ed., Mental Representations: The Interface Between Language and Reality (New York: Cambridge University Press, 1988), pp. 155-82
(DjVu).
The details of the 'relevance-theoretic framework' will not matter for our purposes. All you should really need to know is that it amounts to an attempt to let something like the maxim of Relevance do all the work. You can skim, and probably even skip, §5 and §8.
An early articulation of similar ideas can be found in John Searle, "Literal Meaning", Erkenntnis 13 (1978), pp. 207-24
(DjVu,
JSTOR). You might find it useful at least to skim this paper.
Topics for second short paper announced
Show Questions
Grice writes in "Logic and Conversation":
In the sense in which I am using the word say, I intend what someone has said to be closely related to the conventional meaning of the words (the sentence) he has uttered. (p. 25)
Grice is of course aware that contextual factors may play various sorts of roles in determining what is said, with respect to words like "I" and "you" and "this". But the fixed, stable meanings of the words used are supposed to play an especially important role.
We have more or less been following Grice in this respect, and assuming that we can derive the truth-condition of a sentence from semantic axioms governing its component parts. But Carston, in this paper, challenges this sort of assumption. She is particularly concerned with the requirements of a psychologically adequate account of linguistic competence. And she argues that, if we want such an account, then the difference between what is said—which she calls the explicature associated with an utterance—and what is implicated is much less stark than Grice seems to suppose.
The first lesson to learn from this paper is that it is not at all clear how we should draw the distinction between what is said and what is meant. Carston presents a whole battery of examples to show this. Her discussion of "and" is especially intriguing, since that was one of the examples in which Grice was especially interested. In particular, Carston argues that an utterance of "A and B" can assert the existence of all sorts of different relations between A and B: temporal, causal, rational, and so forth. And she argues further that neither the view that "and" is multiply ambiguous nor Grice's view that the assertion of such relations is always an implicature can be sustained. The view she proposes is instead that speakers use various sorts of pragmatic processes, very similar to those that generate implicatures, to "enrich" the linguistically specified content so as to arrive at what is said.
More specifically, Carston opposes what she calls the "linguistic direction principle", which claims that any "explicating" process must be in response to something in the linguistic form that calls for it. She sees the more traditional view as supposing that "what is said" must be truth-evaluable and that the only work context can do to fix what is said is whatever needs to be done to get us something truth-evaluable. So, e.g., the reference of demonstrative has to be determined, since otherwise one has nothing truth-evaluable; but one does not need to find any relation for "and" to express beyond truth-functional conjunction, since that is already truth-evaluable. What do you think of her arguments against this traditional view?
Our main interest will be in the sorts of arguments Carston gives that, e.g, the temporal aspect of certain uses of "and" must be part of what is said. There are four of these:
- Functional: Carston has views about the different roles the explicature and implicature play, and in particular about how the implicature is generated. These are supposed to imply that the implicature cannot logically entail the explicature. Too little seems to be said here to make it clear why she holds this view and, frankly, it does not seem overwhelmingly plausible on its face. (Can you think of any clear counterexamples to that claim?) So feel free to set it aside if you wish, though it would be nice to hear if anyone has some idea how to justify this restriction, which plays a large role early in the paper.
- Relevance: Carston argues that relevance plays a central role in communication. In particular, considerations of relevance enter not just into the determination of implicatures but into the determination of what is said, e.g., the resolution of ambiguity, the determination of the reference of demonstratives, and so forth. Claims about relevance thus fuel some of Carston's claims about what is part of the explicature. Here, though, Carston mostly gestures at work by Dan Sperber and Deidre Wilson, so these arguments may be difficult for us to evaluate. (That is why I said you can just skim or skip it.)
- Negation: Consider Grice's gas station case. Joe says, "Yo, Bill, I'm out of gas!" and Bill answers, "There's a gas station around the corner". Grice says that Bill implicates that the station is open and has gas to sell. Suppose Fred knows that the station is closed. Then it seems clear that Fred cannot say to Joe, "Bill's wrong", thereby meaning that the station is closed. As it's sometimes said, negation cannot "target" the implicated content.
- Conditionals: There is something similar to be said about conditionals. I'll leave it as an exercise (i.e., feel free to do this in your response) to explain how the "conditional test" is supposed to work.
Carston uses the "negation test" and the "conditional test" to argue, in a variety of cases, that the explicature is much richer than one might have supposed. As I said before, there is a whole battery of examples here. Which of these seem to you to be the strongest? which the weakest? and why? What strategies do you think might be available for resisting the conclusion that Carston wants to draw: that pragmatic processes play a surprisingly large role in determining what is said?
It's not always clear that Carston's various tests deliver the same result. She argues based on functional considerations that "The park is some distance from where I live" says something non-trivial. But how does it interact with negation and conditionals?
|
18 March |
Jason Stanley, "Making It Articulated", Mind and Language 17 (2002), pp. 149-68 (PDF,
Wiley Online)
This issue of Mind and Language was devoted to this sort of topic, and many of the other papers are also worth reading.
Optional: Jason Stanley and Zoltán Gendler Szabó, "On Quantifier Domain Restriction", Mind and Language 15 (2000), pp. 219-61
(DjVu,
Wiley Online,
Gendler Szabó's site)
Show Questions
This paper articulates and defends the "binding argument" against contextualism, which first appeared in the optional reading mentioned above.
As Stanley makes clear in the introduction, his larger goal is to defend a form of what Carston calls the 'linguistic direction principle': "...all the constituents of the propositions hearers would intuitively believe to be expressed by utterances are the result of assigning values to the elements of the sentence uttered, and combining them in accord with its structure" (pp. 150-1). In particular, there is no place for 'enrichment' of the sort to which Carston appeals. Stanley's view is that context can affect what proposition is expressed by an utterance (what is said) only by affecting the interpretation of elements of the syntactic structure of the sentence uttered.
When Stanley speaks of 'syntactic structure' or 'logical form', he means what used to be called 'deep structure'. If you're not familiar with this kind of notion, you can think of it as roughly what we mean by 'logical form' in logic: the result of putting the sentence into logical notation.
The first section of the paper elaborates the binding argument and places it in the context of the sorts of arguments often given in linguistic theory for the existence of "hidden" or "unpronounced" elements. If these sorts of arguments are unfamiliar, don't worry about it. The main point here is simply that the binding argument is very much of a piece with the sorts of arguments in favor of "covert elements" that linguists standardly give. That is, it's not some radically new idea.
What the binding argument is supposed to show is that that 'added' material that is allegedly provided by 'enrichment' actually corresponds to some unpronounced variable (or pronoun) that is present in the syntactic structure of the sentence. The evidence for this is that the variable in question can be bound, i.e., that its value can be made to depend upon some other aspect of the sentence. That is, the claim is that, in
(2) Every student answered every question.
the logical form of "every question" includes a 'domain variable' whose value depends upon the student. So, on this view, the universe of discourse is not set once and for all, but can vary for each quantifier, and the universe for one quantifier can depend upon the values of other variables in the sentence.
So, we get, roughly:
∀x(Sx → ∀y(Qy & Rxy → Axy))
Here "R" is some relation (determined by context) in which the student x is supposed to stand to a question y. In Stanley's example, "Rxy" means: y is on x's exam.
The second section recounts a debate between Sellars and Strawson over the proper treatment of so-called "incomplete descriptions", such as "the table" (which, for the obvious sort of reason, are not straightforwardly amenable to Russell's treatment of descriptions). Stanley argues for two points: First, that we do not reach the 'natural' understanding (in context) of "The table is large" by supplying missing words, as we do in some other cases; Second, that what we do instead (to first approximation) is supply a 'domain' where 'the' table is supposed to be found. But the main point here is the one made at the end of the section concerning what a proper response to the binding argument would have to be like. One cannot simply say that there is some "magical" process through which the right interpretation is generated. One has actually to explain what that process is.
To give a little more detail, what Stanley is proposing about incomplete descriptions is roughly as follows. According to Russell's account, "The table is large" means something like: For some x, x is a table, and for all y, if y is a table, then x = y, and x is large; i.e., There is one and only one table, and it is large. The worry is that this will always be obviously false. But if quantifiers have unpronounced domain variables associated with them, then "some" or "there is" can have a 'restricted' domain; e.g., the domain might be just the things in this room. And it might well be true that there is only one table in this room.
In the third section, Stanley elaborates such a response, drawing upon work by Robyn Carston and Kent Bach. The idea is roughly as follows. Fans of "free enrichment" already accept that, during the process of semantic interpretation, additional material can be added to the (possibly incomplete) proposition that is provided simply by the literal meanings of the words used and whatever compositional rules there might be. For example, if someone utters the sentence "Michael is tall", then this can be 'enriched' to "Michael is tall for a man" or "Michael is tall for a basketball player". Similarly, then, the thought is that the same process could also provide a pronoun (amongst other material) that can then be bound by a higher operator. E.g., in the course of interpreting "Every senator is disliked by most voters", one might 'enrich' it to: Every senator is disliked by most voters in his or her state, thus recovering the bound reading.
Stanley himself develops the argument using comparative adjectives, which also, as he notes, figure in bound readings. So, on his view, if a comparison class is not explicitly provided, there is a variable for one that is present anyway. So "Michael is tall" always already means "Michael is tallF", where "F" can either be given a value expicitly ('for a man') or left to get it from context. What, according to Stanely, shows that the variable is really there is that its value can be made to depend upon other elements of the sentence, as in his example: Every species has members that are small.
In the final section, Stanley argues against this sort of move by arguing that it over-generates. It is important to appreciate here that it is every bit as important that one be able to explain why certain readings of sentences are not available as that one should be able to explain why certain readings are available. For example, we want to know not just why, in "John's brother said Tom kissed him", the pronoun can take either "John" or "John's brother" as its antecedent, but also why it cannot take "Tom" as antecedent. So the worry here is that, if "free enrichment" can provide bindable material, then we would expect to get readings of sentences we cannot in fact get.
Stanley claims that:
(15) Everyone has had the privilege of having John greet.
is ungramamtical, but that it could be rescued from ungrammaticality by the addition of the word "her" to the end of the sentence:
(16) Everyone has had the privilege of having John greet her.
(This is itself ambiguous, but we are interested here in the reading where "her" is bound by "everyone".) Since that is the sort of thing that "free enrichment" is supposed to be able to do, it is then a mystery why (15) is not grammatical after all. But (15) is grammatical (and a similar point applies to (13)). Greeting is a task one might have at a church or a meeting, and so (15) can perfectly well mean that everyone has had the privilege of John's performing a certain task for them. Still, if "enrichment" could add the word "him" to the end of (15), then (15) would be ambiguous, and now the objection is that (15) simply isn't ambiguous in that way. Thus, this account "over-generates", in the sense that it predicts that (15) should have a reading it simply does not have, unless some way can be found to stop (15) from being "enriched" to (16).
It is extremely important here to keep clearly in mind that the issue is supposed to be whether utterances of (15) can express what (16) does; that is, the question is whether what is said when (15) is uttered can sometimes be that would have been said had (16) been uttered. It is not relevant if utterances of (15) can communicate what (16) does, i.e., that (16) could be what is meant. This is the point made on pp. 165-6.
Finally, then, let me mention a different series of examples.
- Everyone who read a book skipped some pages.
- Everyone who read skipped some pages.
- Everyone skipped some pages.
I claim that there are readings of (i) that are not available for (ii) or (iii) but that should be if quantifier domain restriction worked through "enrichment". Can you develop this argument?
|
20 March |
Emma Borg, "Minimalism versus Contextualism in Semantics", in Gerhard Preyer and Georg Peter, eds., Context-Sensitivity and Semantic Minimalism (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2007), pp. 339-60
(DjVu)
See also Borg's books Minimal Semantics (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2007) and Pursuing Meaning (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2012).
Show Questions
This paper is one in a volume of essays responding to and commenting upon Herman Cappelen and Ernie Lepore's book Insensitive Semantics, in which they argue for the view now known as semantic minimalism. This is the view that, with the exception of the obvious exceptions ("I", "here", "this", etc), every sentence expresses a unique proposition, so that context-sensitivity is limited to those obvious exceptions. Borg also defends a form of this view, though an even stronger one. Our interest is in how carefully Borg sets out the different positions and how she distinguishes the sorts of views Carston and Stanley defend. She does not argue for any particular view of her own in this paper.
Borg identifies four sorts of arguments against minimalism, that is, in favor of the view that some particular expression is context-sensitive.
- Context-shifting Arguments: These claim that some particular sentence, e.g., "Michael is tall", can express a truth in some contexts, but not in others, even if the relevant facts have not changed.
- Incompleteness: These claim that particular sorts of sentences, such as "Mary is ready", rarely, if ever, express propositions on their own, but require some supplmentation.
- Inappropriateness: These claim that certain sorts of sentences, such as "Every bottle is empty", although there is a proposition they could always express, cannot express that proposition, because it is too obviously not what speakers mean.
- Indeterminacy: These arguments claim that even the thought expressed is in certain sorts of cases indeterminate. It's much less clear what argument of this type would be like, and Borg does not give any examples. But consider a sentence like "The apple is green", and suppose it clear which apple is in question and that we are talking about color (not ripeness). Is it supposed to be green on the outside or on the inside? Is it OK if it's a red apple painted green? (Note what that use of the word "red" meant.)
Part of the point Borg wants to make is that some of these arguments, if accepted, lead to more radical departures from minimalism than others.
Following C&L, Borg distinguishes two sorts of contextualism: radical and moderate. C&L had characterized the difference in terms of the scope of context-sensitivity, so that more moderate views regard fewer terms as context-sensitive. As Borg notes, however, this is not a particulary illuminating characterization. Rather, it is one thing to hold that there are terms outside the "basic set" ("I", "here", "tomorrow", and the like) that are context-sensitive in the same way that those terms are. It is an entirely different thing to hold that "there are forms of context-sensitivity that are not capturable on the model of...the Basic Set" (p. 344).
Thus, Borg regards the crucial questions as being: What are the mechanisms of context-sensitivity? Can the context of utterance affect semantic content even when such action is not demanded by the syntax of the sentence? Radical contextualists think it can; moderates think it cannot. The moderate view is thus much closer in spirit to minimalism, since it regards all context-sensitivity as traceable to syntactic 'triggers'. (So moderate contextualits accept a form of the 'linguistic direction principle' or what Carston had earlier called the Isomorphism Principle.) The disagreement between these views concerns not what kind of phenomenon context-sensitivity is, so to speak, but only how extensive that phenomenon is. Radical contextualists, on the other hand, think we need "an entirely different picture of the relationship between semantics and pragmatics" (p. 346), i.e., they think that there is something fundamentally wrong with the model of context-sensitivity that informs miminalism and moderate contextualism.
Using this distinction, Borg then defends moderate contextualism against a charge made by C&L. In their book, they had argued that moderate contextualism collapses into radical contextualism: Once one allows for the possibility of context-sensitivity outside the basic set, using the sorts of arguments mentioned above to argue for that claim, then one will find it difficult not to accept the context-sensitivity is all but ubiquitous. But Borg argues that moderates can have reasons to limit the scope of context-sensitivity. Borg's observation is that if what distinguishes moderate from radical contextualism is a view about the mechanisms of context-depencence (and not just how many expressions are context-dependence), then no such argument can possibly work. But now there's another question to ask: If the distinction is one about 'mechanisms'—if, in particular, moderate contextualists accept the linguistic direction principle—might that not provide some way for moderate contextualists to resist the idea that all expressions turn out to be context-dependent?
Borg spends the remainder of the paper offering a characterization of minimalism. It has four parts.
- Sentences (not just utterances of them) typically do express propositions (modulo any obviously context-dependent elements that might contain).
This most obviously matters with examples like "Every bottle is empty" or "Jill is ready", though what's weird about it differs in these cases. How so?
- There is something special about the expressions in the 'basic set' and any extension of context-dependence beyond these is momentous.
What reasons does Borg give, in the first paragraph of §3.2, in favor of this claim? How good are those reasons? (The rest of §3.2 discusses a sectarian dispute between Borg and C&L and can be skipped.)
- Minimalists draw a strong distinction between semantic content and speech at content, where the latter corresponds to what is said in Grice's sense.
Most of Borg's own discussion is, again, concerned with a disagreement between her and C&L about what role this 'minimal proposition' is supposed to play. But there's a deeper worry here for both Borg and C&L. If what's said when someone utters "Jill is ready" isn't determined by the minimal proposition allegedly expressed, then what does determine it? In practice, it would seem to be the sorts of pragmatic processes (enrichment, etc) to which radical contextualists draw attention. So it seems as if it turns out that, if our interest is in what's said, then minimalism looks to be closer to radical contextualism than one might have thought it should.
- "...[T]here is an entirely formal route to semantic content".
Borg distinguishes two different forms of this view. On the weaker, it amounts to the linguistic direction principle. On the stronger, it implies that the 'semantic content' of a sentence should be wholly determined by its formal features and so independently of any contextual facts. This is an incredibly strong view. I take the main question about it to be: Why should one think, as Borg seems to think (see e.g., fn. 42), that there needs to be something propositional or truth-evaluable that is formally determined in this way?
|
22 March |
Ishani Maitra, "How and Why To Be a Moderate Contextualist", in Gerhard Preyer and Georg Peter, eds., Context-Sensitivity and Semantic Minimalism (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2007), pp. 112-32
(DjVu)
Optional: Richard Kimberly Heck, "Semantics and Context-Dependence: Towards a Strawsonian Account", in A. Burgess and B. Sherman, eds., Metasemantics: New Essays on the Foundations of Meaning (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2014), pp. 327-64
(PDF);
originally published under the name "Richard G. Heck, Jr".
Second short paper due
Show Questions
Maitra first takes up a topic also discussed by Borg: what divides Moderate from Radical Contextualism. Like Borg, she starts with Cappelen and Lepore's idea that the issue concerns the "extent" of context-sensitivity. But Maitra suggests that we should understand this in terms of:
- The Meaning Question: How much does the "standing meaning" of an expression constrain the content it can have on a given occasion of use?
- The Context Question: How rule-governed is the determination of content from context?
The thought, then, is: "The more constrained and rule-governed the semantic contents of an expression are on a given Contextualist view, the less context-sensitive that expression is taken to be" (p. 116). This is an important point: One does not have to choose between the different sorts of views here once and for all, but can hold different views about different sorts of expressions. E.g., almost everyone agrees that "I" is much more constrained than, say, "that" and it seems not unreasonable to think that determining the reference of "I" is more rule-governed than determining the reference of "that".
It does not seem particularly important to be able to compare all possible views along these dimensions: see pp. 116-7. It's enough to have distinguished what the right questions are.
Maitra mentions the term "character", which was introduced in work on this kind of topic by David Kaplan. In this sense, 'character' is supposed to model 'standing meaning', that is, the character of an expression is (roughly) the meaning that expression has in its own right (as opposed to on any given occasion). Kaplan treats character as a function from contexts (circumstances in which an utterance is made) to 'contents', so the character of "you", for example, would be a function from contexts to whoever is denoted by "you" in that context (the 'addressee', as it is sometimes put).
Maitra goes on to argue, in §3, that this way of categorizing the different views makes the question how many expressions are context-sensitive not the crucial question. What matters is the way in which they are context-sensitive. There are thus some obvious similarities between how Maitra and Borg characterizes these views. Are there differences as well or do they really amount to the same idea? If there are differences, is there some way to put the two views together to get a stronger one?
The main focus of the paper is on what Maitra calls the "Miracle of Communication Argument" (MCA) against Radical Contextualism. The worry here is that, if pragmatic processes affect semantic content as dramatically as Radical Contextualists propose, then, since almost any piece of information one has can prove relevant, it is obscure how speakers and hearers ever manage to converge on a particular interpretation of some bit of language.
Maitra raises two sorts of objections to this argument.
- Something along these lines seems obviously to be true of implicature, and yet we do manage to communicate by implicature. Hence, it looks as if there must be some explanation to be given of how this works. Any idea what that might be? (How specific are implicatures?)
Maitra argues that something similar is true, on C&L's own view, of 'what is asserted', which is what Borg called "speech act content". You need not worry about this part of the argument.
- Something along these lines seems to be true of uncontroversially context-sensitive expressions. Indeed, there seem to be very, very few expressions in the "basic set" whose content on a given occasion of utterance is completely determined by rule: "I", "today", "tomorrow", and "yesterday" seem plausible candidates. (These are the so called 'automatic indexicals'.) But neither "here" nor "now" nor "we" nor "you" has its reference completely determined by rule. Can you construct examples to illustrate this point? (Maitra gives one for "we", but it is not developed much.)
Still, Maitra thinks (or at least concedes) that the MCA does pose some sort of challenge to Contextualism. In particular, we need to "explain why hearers are generally more confident about what is communicated via semantic contents, than about what is communicated in other ways" (p. 125), such as implicature.
Maitra argues in §5 that an appropriately Moderate form of Contextualism has an explanation to offer. Focusing on comparative adjectives, like "tall", she suggests that:
- Their standing meaning highly constrains their content, since the only locus of variation is in the comparison class. I.e., "tall" always means: tall for an F, and the only issue is what F is.
- It might be possible to say something fairly definite about how different contexts make "natural" comparison classes available.
How does Maitra develop this latter idea? What does she mean by "natural" readings of sentences? (How might this compare to an example we discussed earlier, according to which there are 1000 possible concepts humans can have, and they are all innate?) How is this view supposed to answer the MCA?
On p. 128, Maitra considers an objection that a radical contextualist might reasonably bring: Even once we know what the comparison class for "fast", say, is, "there are many ways of being fast for a snail". So the worry is that, if we just specify the comparison class as being snails, we have still yet to specify a truth-evaluable content. Maitra offers two replies, the first of which is ad hominem. What is the second reply and how effective is it? (It might help here to recall Borg's discussion of 'incompleteness arguments'.)
Finally, Maitra considers the question whether a Contextualist might concede that, since so much information is potentially relevant for determining the comparison class, say, there will be failures of perfect communication, but then respond that communication does not need to be perfect to be successful. She does not really develop an example to illustrate this possibility. Can you do so, say, one involving "fast" or "tall"?
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25 March–29 March |
No Class: Spring Break |
1 April |
Donald Davidson, "What Metaphors Mean", Critical Inquiry 5 (1978), pp. 31-47, also in Inquiries, pp. 245-64 (DjVu, JSTOR).
The classic paper on metaphor, to which much of the early literature responds, is Max Black, "Metaphor", Proceedings of the Aristotelian Society 55 (1955), pp. 273-94
(JSTOR).
Black responds to Davidson in "How Metaphors Work: A Reply to Donald Davidson", Critical Inquiry 6 (1979), pp. 131-43
(JSTOR).
Second short paper returned
Show Questions
The central question of Davidson's paper is what we should say about the meanings of metaphorical utterances, of which, as you will note, his paper is quite full. His view is that the only meaning a metaphorical utterance has is its literal meaning. Or, to put it differently, Davidson means to deny that metaphor is "primarily a vehicle for conveying ideas..." in anything like the way that non-metaphorical uses of language are (p. 32). This is a bold view, and one central problem is to understand how Davidson does think metaphor functions.
Davidson first (pp. 33-4) argues against the view that using an expression metaphorically gives it a special, metaphorical meaning (and a special, metaphorical extension). His objection is that, if so, then "there is no difference between metaphor and the introduction of a new term into our vocabulary..." (p. 34). What the view leaves out is the fact that metaphorical meaning, if such there is, depends upon literal meaning. So, Davidson proceeds to argue, metaphor is not just a form of ambiguity, either.
The most developed form of the ambiguity theory is what Davidson calls the 'Fregean' theory. (Frege himself, just to be clear, never said anything along these lines, or even addressed the issue of metaphor.) His argument against it spans pp. 35-8. What is the central idea in this argument? How is it supposed to refute the 'Fregean' view? Perhaps the key passage is this one:
If metaphor involved a second meaning, as ambiguity does, we might expect to be able to specify the special meaning of a word in a metaphorical setting by waiting until the metaphor dies. The figurative meaning of the living metaphor should be immortalized in the literal meaning of the dead.
But, or so Davidson insists, it is not. What's properly metaphorical is wholly lost, he claims, when the metaphor dies.
The next theory considered is the standard, grade school account: A metaphor is a simile without "like" or "as". Davidson complains that the "corresponding" simile is not always easy to identify. But his deeper complaints are that this view (i) "den[ies] access to what we took to be the literal meaning of the metaphor" and (ii) trivializes metaphor, since the literal meaning of a simile is simply that this is like that. The obvious response is that there is more even to the meaning of the simile: It says that this is like that in some particular ways. But then, Davidson complains (pp. 39-40), the "reduction" of metaphor to simile is unhelpful, since it leaves open the most interesting question, which is what those ways of being like are. Does that seem right?
To this point, then, Davidson takes himself to have disposed of the idea that metaphorical meaning should be regarded as part of what is said. Thus, he insists, on p. 40, that the particular comparisons a simile might lead you to notice is part of what is meant. This leads to an argument that the comparison with simile actually undermines the idea that words use metaphorically have some 'special metaphorical meaning'. (The argument is given, very briefly, in the last paragraph on p. 40. Can you unpack it?) The next topic to be explored is thus whether we should think of metaphorical meaning in terms of what is meant, a view that is already suggested by Grice.
After discussing a range of examples—in an effort, I think, to indicate just how extensive and complex the phenomenon of metaphor is—Davidson eventually arrives (on p. 44) at the question whether a given metaphor has any sort of "cognitive content", whether said or meant. Davidson's first question is why, if it does, it is so difficult to say what it is, i.e., to replace the metaphor with a literal paraphrase. This is a point that is emphasized throughout the literature on metaphor: its unparaphrasability, at least without some loss.
This reveals what Davidson calls
a tension in the usual view of metaphor. For on the one hand, the usual view wants to hold that a metaphor does something no plain prose can possibly do and, on the other hand, it wants to explain what a metaphor does by appealing to a cognitive content—just the sort of thing plain prose is designed to express.
His suggestion, then, is that we should "give up the idea that a metaphor carries a message, that it has a content or meaning (except, of course, its literal meaning)" (p. 45). Thus, he writes:
The central error about metaphor is most easily attacked when it takes the form of a theory of metaphorical meaning, but behind that theory, and statable independently, is the thesis that associated with a metaphor is a cognitive content that its author wishes to convey and that the interpreter must grasp if he is to get the message. This theory is false, whether or not we call the purported cognitive content a meaning. (p. 46)
Can you explain in detail why this implies that there is nothing special that is "meant" by a metaphor, in Grice's sense?
Thus, we are left with the question how Davidson does think metaphor works. What he seems to say is that a metaphor can make us aware of, or lead us to appreciate, certain sorts of similarities (e.g.), but that this is not because of any "coded message" that the metaphor carries. How might this view properly be understood? What advantages or disadvantages does it seem to have?
|
3 April |
Catherine Wearing, "Metaphor and What Is Said", Mind and Language 21 (2006), pp. 310-332
(Wiley Online).
You can skip or skim §3, which is a critical discussion of a different proposal due to Josef Stern. For a paper-length version of his view, see "Metaphor as Demonstrative", Journal of Philosophy 82 (1985), pp. 677-710
( PhilPapers,
JSTOR). A more recent article is "Metaphor and Minimalism", Philosophical Studies 153 (2011), pp. 273-98
( Springer).
See also Dan Sperber and Deirdre Wilson, "A Deflationary Account of Metaphor", in R. Gibbs, ed. The Cambridge Handbook of Metaphor and Thought (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 2008), pp. 84-105
(via Sperber's Site)
Show Questions
Way on the other side from Davidson, Wearing holds the view that metaphorical content is part of what it is said. Her defense of this position draws upon the same sorts of resources that Carston's defense of radical contextualism does.
In §2, Wearing describes and then criticizes a Gricean view of metaphor, according to which metaphorical content is part of what is meant. She gives three arguments:
- Unlike in the case of implicature, it looks as if one can deny a metaphorical utterance by saying, "No, that's not true", or something of the sort. This is Carston's negation test, so it has whatever advantages or disadvantages that test has.
- Again unlike in the case of implicatures, metaphorical content seems to 'embed' within other constructions. Wearing gives two examples: disjunction and belief reports. But Wearing's example, in the former case, is arguably a dead metaphor. Can you give a better example? One might also consider how Carston's conditional test might fare in this sort of case.
- There is empirical evidence suggesting that we do not see the kind of differences between literal and metaphorical interpretation that one might expect on the Gricean view.
None of these are conclusive, and Wearing does not suggest they are. But she does think they motivate a search for an alternative.
In §4.1, Wearing introduces what she calls 'interpretive flexibility', arguing "that what is meant by an utterance involving the word 'jump' varies in virtue of changes in what is taken to count as jumping in one context or another" (pp. 320-1). And she suggests that this kind of flexibility is quite general. Wearing then discusses three ways one might try to handle this phenomenon: Minimalism (in connection with which she mentions Peter Unger), and two kinds of contextualism, which we have of course already encountered, and which Wearing distinguishes on the basis "of what mandates the retrieval of the contextually specific information" (p. 322), i.e., essentially on the basis of what Carston calls the 'linguistic direction principle'. Wearing's own sympathies are very much with Carston, but here she tries to be neutral on that issue and to argue that both views allow for metaphorical content to be part of what it said.
In §4.2, Wearing discusses the question what 'metaphorical content' actually is. It is a commonplace in such discussions (and we saw this point in Davidson) that metaphors are unparaphrasable because they are 'inexhaustible': There is no end to what one can say about what the metaphor 'means'. But Wearing urges us to distinguish within this broad notion of 'metaphorical content' two aspects: what truly belongs to content and other things that a metaphor 'brings to mind'.
Wearing focuses on what we might call 'simple predicative metaphors': subject-predicate type sentences in which the predicate is interpreted metaphorically. In such cases, she suggests, we have a case of interpretive flexibility, in which what 'counts as' laughing (say) is different from what it might be in other cases. So the 'metaphorical content' of such a metaphor is limited to what property is ascribed and does not include all of the other associations it might bring to mind. This is really the crucial move in the paper. How helpful does this distinction seem to be? Answering this question will require taking into account Wearing's intention to provide "a conception of metaphorical content appropriate to explaining how metaphors function in communication" (p. 325). What exactly does she mean by that? Are there metaphors to which her account would, therefore, simply fail to apply? If so, is that a bug or a feature?
Wearing proceeds to give some account of what 'counting as' might be in different cases, and how one might determine what 'counts as' what. But, as she remarks, it is not really part of the project here to say how people manage to interpret metaphors. Every view must face that sort of question (as Wearing emphasizes later, on p. 327). (One might want to consider here, though, whether Wearing might not face a form of the Miracle of Communication worry and how she might respond to it.)
The allusion to Humpty Dumpty concerns a famous passage in Lewis Carroll's Through the Looking Glass in which Humpty insists that "There's glory for you" means "That's a nice knockdown argument" because he says it does.
In §4.3, Wearing argues that metaphorical interpretation is continuous with other sorts of 'interpretive flexibility' and so that however we want to account for familiar cases of that phenomenon, they will work for metaphor, too. She mentions three sorts of similarities between "The woods are laughing" and "The table is covered". The most imporant of these is the third: that, in both cases, what is at issue is what 'counts as' laughing or being covered. One might worry that the 'counting as' language cannot carry as much weight as Wearing seems to want. But might her point be rephrased (in the predicative cases) in terms of what property is being ascribed? Would that be enough to secure the 'continuity' that she wants?
Wearing does not make the point explicitly, but the term "laughing" is presumably itself subject to interpretive flexibility even in literal uses. Can you describe some examples that would make this point? How might this be used to reinforce her claim that the cases here form a continuum?
It is not too difficult to see how the 'enrichment' idea might be extended to metaphor. But it is more difficult to see how the 'covert variable' approach might be adapted for this purpose. In particular, it is hard to see how to generate a metaphorical reading of "tall" (I don't have a good example) by varying the comparison class. What would be the significance of that fact, if it is one?
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5 April |
Elisabeth Camp, "Contextualism, Metaphor, and What is Said", Mind & Language 21 (2006), pp. 280–309
(Wiley Online,
via Camp's Website,
PDF).
You need not read §6, in which Camp sketches a positive account of how to delineate "what is said". This part of the paper is well worth studying (especially for anyone generally interested in contextualism), but our focus at the moment is on metaphor, and it is doubtful we will have time to discuss §6. But I do anyway encourage you to at least skim this part of the paper, as it throws important light on some of Camp's earlier discussion.
For Camp's own positive view, see "Metaphor and That Certain 'Je Ne Sais Quoi'", Philosophical Studies 129 (2006), pp. 1-25
(PhilPapers,
JSTOR,
Camp's website).
Camp has published a few other papers on this topic, which can be found on her web site.
A Gricean view of metaphor can also be found in John Searle, "Metaphor", in his Expression and Meaning (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1979), pp. 76-116
(DjVu). This sort of idea was already mentioned by Grice ("Logic and Conversation", p. 34).
Show Questions
Camp endorses a largely Gricean view of metaphor, according to which one who utters a metaphor "say[s] one thing in order to communicate something different" (p. 280). She here defends this view against a "contextualist" treatment of metaphor according to which metaphorical content is part of what is said. (Note that what Camp means by "contextualism" seems to be a form of "radical" contextualism.) To that end, Camp discusses four sorts of arguments for the "contextualist" view.
One interesting question to consider as you read this paper is whether metaphor is a unified category from the perspective of semantic theory. I'll raise this kind of issue at a couple places below. The question is closely related to the reasons Wearing has for wanting to separate out 'metaphorical content' from everything a metaphor conveys.
The first argument is that speakers are willing to report someone who has uttered "Bill is a bulldozer" as having said, e.g., that Bill is a tough guy. The simple response to this argument is that the ordinary use of "said" should not be presumed to be any kind of guide to the theoretical notion of what is said. (This point is strongly associated with
Cappelen and Lepore (1997),
to which Camp refers.) Even in clear cases of 'indirect speech', Camp argues, one can report, using "say", what has only indirectly been said. This suggests to Camp that metaphor may 'pattern with' implicature as regards its interaction with indirect speech reports: both "fall on both sides of the line between what speakers are and are not ordinarily willing to report people as having said" (p. 286). Can you elaborate this response a bit? Can you think of other examples that might support it?
The second argument is that the metaphorical interpretation is in some sense "direct" and independent of the (alleged) literal meaning, whereas an implicature of course does depend upon what is said and so is, in that sense, "indirect". The difficulty, according to Camp, is to explain clearly what that is supposed to mean. It cannot mean that "indirect" meanings have to be worked out consciously, since many implicatures clearly are not. A better suggestion is that the process of working out "indirect" meanings has to be "available", in the sense in which one's reasons for action are "available" even when one has not consciously deliberated about what to do. (You went to the kitchen because you were thirsty, but did not think to yourself, "I'm thirsty, so I should go to the kitchen".) But then, Camp claims, metaphorical interpretation is "indirect" in the relevant sense. This is simply because, as Davidson emphasized, metaphorical meaning depends upon literal meaning.
One might wonder, however, whether there is not a contrast here between what Camp calls "ordinary conversational metaphors" and "poetic metaphors". Indeed, it seems as if it would be natural for Wearing to invoke some such distinction in reply to Camp. How so? In a way, Camp does consider such a move, but then remarks that "this will leave out most of what we normally think of as metaphor" (p. 290). If so, how big a problem would that be?
The third argument is that metaphorical content can serve as input for the process of calculating implicatures. Camp argues, however, that agreed forms of indirect speech, such as sarcasm, can do so as well. The hard case is to get implicatures to trigger further implicatures. How convincing is Camp's example of that? How plausible is her explanation for when this can happen and when it cannot?
Still, there is an asymmetry: Implicature must follow metaphorical interpretation; you cannot have a metaphorical interpretation of an implicature. Camp's responds, yet again, that this does not clearly differentiate metaphor from other forms of indirect speech, such as sarcasm. This is a complex argument involving example (23). Can you unpack it? (The crucial claim is that "...the manner-generated implicatures must fall within the scope of the sarcasm..." (p. 293).)
The fourth argument is that one can explicitly agree or disagree with the metaphorical content of an utterance, by saying things like "Yes, that's true", or "No, he's not". In cases like the letter of recommendation, on the other hand, one cannot disagree with what is merely implicated that way. But Camp argues (somewhat tentatively) that there are cases of implicature where one can use such language, and that it certainly can be used with sarcasm, malapropisms, and certain sorts of speaker's meaning.
The example about Smith and Jones is borrowed from Saul Kripke. We are to imagine seeing someone across the street, and Alex asks, "What's Smith doing?" Drew replies, "Raking the leaves". In fact, it is not Smith but Jones. Kripke argues that what's said in this case is that Smith is raking the leaves, but what's meant is that that guy over there (who happens to be Jones) is raking the leaves.
Camp also argues that respondents can insist upon a literal construal and cannot be 'compelled' to respond to merely metaphorical content.0
...[T]he crucial point is this: if the original speaker’s utterance had genuinely 'lodged' a new metaphorical meaning in the words uttered, or even just had established a new, temporary use for them, then that meaning should necessarily be inherited by any later use of those same words in that same context which responds to the initial claim. (p. 297)
Care to elaborate? How good is that argument?
One might wonder if another argument might be available here, of a sort that Camp uses earlier in the paper, namely, that the difference here tracks explicitness and obviousness, rather than revealing a difference between metaphor and implicature. How might that go?
|
8 April |
Discussion
Revised version of second short paper due
|
|
Warning: Please be advised that, within this literature, it is customary for racial epithets and other slurs to be written out. So you will, for example, see the n-word written out, and not just referred to as "the n-word". Elisabeth Camp addresses the question why people do this in her paper (where she does so, too), writing:
I am going to mention (though not use) a variety of slurs in contemporary use. This will offend some readers, for which I apologize. But I believe we can understand slurs' actual force only by considering examples where we ourselves experience their viscerally palpable effects. I hope the offense is offset by a commensurate gain in understanding.
We will follow this practice in class, too, and I shall follow it below, as well, though we shall also try not to overdo it. I shall myself use as an example the word "faggot", since it is an epithet that was often directed at me in my younger days.
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10 April |
Christopher Hom, "The Semantics of Racial Epithets", Journal of Philosophy 105 (2008), pp. 416-440
(PhilPapers,
PDCNet,
PDF)
See also Christopher Hom and Robert May, "Moral and Semantic Innocence", Analytic Philosophy 54 (2013), pp. 293-313
(PhilPapers)
Show Questions
The central question of Hom's paper is how we should think about the derogatory content of racial epithets. In fact, the discussion seems to apply more broadly, to other slurs, such as "faggot". Is the derogatory content of that term part of what is said when someone uses it? Or is it just part of what is meant?
Hom defends the 'semantic' view which, to first approximation, is that "faggot" means: gay man (that part is the 'non-pejorative correlate) and despicable because of it. Such an account faces two main challenges: (i) explaining why only some uses of epithets derogate (in particular, how there can be 'appropriated' uses); and (ii) how different epithets can have different force (e.g., why "faggot" is worse than "fairy").
In §II, Hom considers (and criticizes) various 'pragmatic' accounts of epithets, though these are not all 'pragmatic' in the same sense. The first of these is a 'contextualist' account that would hold that the meaning of a epithet varies according to the context. (Note that this view could be understood as either concerning what is said or what is meant.) Hom's complaint about it is that it doesn't specify a 'rule' that would allow us to predict the meaning of a given utterance of an epithet. Generally speaking, contextualists have not been worried by such complaints. Hom does give some reasons they should be worried here. How good are those?
The second pragmatic strategy borrows from Frege, who suggested that synonymous words sometimes differ in 'tone' or 'coloring'. My own view is that what Frege meant here is probably best elaborated in terms of conventional implicature, which is the third view Hom discusses. Here, Hom is trying to see if there is a different way of understanding the view. So, to a large extent, this discussion can be skimmed.
As for the third view just mentioned, Hom has several criticisms to make of it. The first is that, if the derogatory content of a word is a conventional implicature, then it is not 'cancelable' and so would have always to be present. But Hom claims (and will argue later) that there are non-derogatory uses of words like "faggot" (and not just appropriated uses). Another is that, on this view, "Male homosexuals are faggots" is not only true but analytic, since it is synonymous with "Male homosexuals are gay men". Moreover, pairs like:
- Alex said that Fred is a gay man.
- Alex said that Fred is a faggot.
might seem to have different truth-values although, again, on the view we are considering, one might expect them to be synonymous. Do you have any ideas about what a defender of the pragmatic view might say in response? (Compare: "Fred believes that a fortnight is a fortnight" and "Fred believes that a fortnight is two weeks".)
In §III, Hom lays out a number of facts he thinks a good theory of epithets will need to explain. Many of these are fairly obvious, but a couple merit special attention. What Hom calls "derogatory autonomy" is the fact that the power of an epithet does not seem to depend upon a speaker's own attitudes but to be some kind of social fact (possibly a convention, in Lewis's sense). What he calls "evolution" is related: the fact that the derogatory force of an epithet can change over time.
The most important of these, though, is the last: Hom claims that there are non-derogatory, non-appropriated uses of epithets. Hom gives a number of examples to support this claim. How compelling do you find them to be? (It's worth reformulating these for yourself in terms of other epithets. It's also worth considering what might seem to be minor variants of these, such as "Is Naomi Osaka a chink?" or "Naomi Osaka is not a chink" or "Are Japanese people chinks?")
In §IV, Hom develops his positive view, which he calls "combinatorial externalism". Hom's view is that the derogatory force of a racial epithet, at a given time, and in a given society, derives, in large part, from racist ideologies and racist practices prevalent in that society at that time. So his view is that what the epithet means is: a person who is a member of a certain group and who, as such, ought to be treated in certain ways (that is the practice part) because members of that group have certain properties (that is the ideology part). It's crucial to Hom's view that, although this content is always present when the epithet is used, uses of it are not always derogatory. For example, "Fred is not a faggot" denies that Fred ought to be mistreated because he is gay.
In the last section, Hom argues that his view does better with the desiderata listed in §III than the other views he considered. I'll leave it to you to comment upon these and to raise any objections to Hom's view that might seem to you to emerge from that. (I find it hard myself to understand what Hom wants to say about appropriation. If you do understand it, please feel free to explain.)
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12 April |
Elisabeth Camp, "Slurring Perspectives", Analytic Philosophy 54 (2013), pp. 330-49
(PhilPapers,
Wiley Online,
Camp's website)
Camp also deploys the notion of 'perspective' in her account of metaphor, for which see "Metaphor and That Certain 'Je Ne Sais Quoi'", Philosophical Studies 129 (2006), pp. 1-25
(PhilPapers,
JSTOR,
Camp's website).
Show Questions
Camp offers in this paper an account of slurs in which they encode what she calls 'perspectives'. She here attempts to remain neutral on how such perspectives are 'encoded': whether as part of what's said or in some other way. Her claims here are meant only to concern, as she puts it, "what the 'other' component of slurs is" (p. 331), besides what is present in the 'non-pejorative correlate'.
Camp first considers some alternatives to the view she wants to defend. The first is a kind of expressivism, according to which the use of a slur expresses (in the sense of moral expressivism) a negative attitude about the target group. Camp lodges two objections against this view. The first is that not all uses of slurs seem to express such attitudes. I find these examples somewhat difficult to analyze, but it's important to keep in mind here that, at least as Camp understands the view she is criticizing, uses of slurs are supposed to express negative attitudes. This needs to be distinguished from whether use of a slur reveals such attitudes.
On the other end are views like Hom's. Camp does a nice job explaining why there is a sense that someone who uses a slur (in the typical way) is making a mistake. But she notes that it is difficult, at best, to say exactly what, besides membership in a given group, the use of a slur asserts.
One important observation here (which is not original to Camp) is that the derogatory aspect of slurs seems to 'project out' from negation, conditionals, and many other constructions. I.e., "John is not a faggot" and "If John is a faggot, then..." seem every bit as offensive as "John is a faggot". This is a problem for views like Hom's: It seems as if I should be able straighforwardly to negate the derogatory component, if it is part of what is said. I.e, "John is not a faggot" should mean something like: It is not the case that John is a gay man and, as such, is an appropriate target of discrimination. But it clearly does not.
In §3, Camp begins developing her view, "that slurs are so rhetorically powerful because they signal allegiance to a perspective: an integrated, intuitive way of cognizing members of the targeted group" (p. 335). §3.1 is devoted to outlining what a perspective is: a conception, usually implicit, of what features of members of the target group (in this case) are most important, in the sense that they explain or ground other features. (You might think about this in connection with implicit bias.) Camp offers a number of suggestions about how such a perspective might influence both thought and affect. She also insists that "getting a perspective", that is, understanding what it is, "even temporarily, requires actually structuring one's thoughts in the relevant" way (p. 336). This will turn out to be one of those cases where a philosopher says something, almost in passing, that one might not even have noticed but which turns out to be really important.
In §3.2, Camp applies this notion to slurs, arguing that use of a slur "signals a commitment to an overarching perspective on the targeted group as a whole" (p. 337) or, at least, to the claim that being a member of that group is an important feature of a member of it, one that explains or grounds other features. It is then because the relevant perspective evinces disrespect for members of the target group that use of the slur derogates.
In §3.3, Camp argues that the connection between slurs and perspectives is, in some sense, semantic, i.e., that the associated perspective is part of the meaning of the slur itself. The main argument here is simply that use of that word, as opposed to the neutral counterpart, seems to 'insert a way of thinking about the group into the conversation'. Precisely how that is part of meaning, Camp does not say, but she does identify it as 'not at issue content', one standard example of which is conventional implicature (so one might, for the moment, take that to be the view).
Finally, Camp suggests that we can explain, in such terms, "why the [slurs] produce a feeling of complicity in their hearers..." (p. 343). She suggests that there are two forms of this. First, someone who hears the slur is, in effect, forced to adapt, if only temporarily, the perspective associated with it; this is 'cognitive' complicity. Second, the utterance of the slur is a reminder of the social structures that give it weight; this is 'social' complicity. And silence equals agreement. Do both of those points seem right?
If you read a lot of the footnotes, you can see that the view that Camp expresses in this paper is a successor to a view she held earlier. It seems to me that, in some ways, it is actually easier to understand her current view if you see it in that light. So let me fill in this part of the story.
Camp's original view seems to have been as follows. Each slur is associated with a stereotype of the members of the group to which the slur purports to apply. I am guessing, given what else I know about Camp's views, that the notion of "stereotype" she had in mind was not (just) the ordinary one, but that it at least had elements of the notion going by that name that psychologists sometimes discuss. Stereotypes, in this sense, are supposed to play a role in how we sort objects into categories, how we organize our thought about them (what's typical, what goes with what), and so forth. We might then think of the "pejorative aspect" of a slur as, e.g., signalling a commitment to the appropriateness of the stereotype. And one can now imagine relatively easily what kind of story one might tell about why the use of slurs typically derogates the targeted group.
It would seem, however, that Camp became convinced that that view is too narrow: Some slurs, the claim seems to have been, are not associated with stereotypes. So Camp reformulates the view so that the role previously played by stereotypes is now played by what she calls 'perspectives'. These play a similar psychological role, and one might think of stereotypes as a kind of perspective. So much of the structure of the original view is preserved. But one might wonder if something else has been lost: Is it a good thing or a bad thing if these 'perspectives' can be so thin that there is little more to them than that a person's being a member of the 'targeted group' is supposed to be regarded as an important fact about them (e.g., important to who that person is)?
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15 April |
Mitchell Green, "Speech Acts", in E. Zalta, ed., The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy, Winter 2017, §§1-3, but you may skip or skim §2.3
(SEP,
PDF)
Show Questions
Grice, recall, emphasizes that speaking is a form of rational action. But it was the British philosopher
John Austin who made the most of that idea, most notably in his How To Do Things With Words. Austin was particularly impressed by the great variety of things we can do with words. For example, consider the sentence "A car is coming". Standing on a corner where a friend is trying to take a picture of a building with a blurry car in front of it, you might say "A car is coming" to inform them of that fact. Seeing someone about to step of the curb, you might utter the same sentence to warn them. A parent whose small child has done so might utter it to scold them.
Austin was particularly interested in a range of cases in which saying something can literally make something so (as assertion, for example, cannot). A common example is promising. Uttering the words "I promise to clean the shower" constitutes (under the right circumstances) one's promising to clean the shower: It makes it the case that one has so promised. Other examples are christening a ship, appointing someone to a position, and declaring a verdict (as a judge or umpire might do). These examples illustate the fact that some speech acts have very specific 'felicity conditions'. Not anyone can christen a ship under just any circumstances.
These sorts of acts are related to a class of sentences known as 'performatives'. These are sentences like "I promise..." that, in some sense, simultaneously describe the act that is being performed and also constitute performing it. It was performatives that were, to a large extent, the focus of Austin's attention.
For our purposes, what we mostly need is a general sense of the distinctions that Austin makes and the terminology he introduced to describe them. The most basic of these is between locutionary content, illocutionary force, and perlocutionary effects. The locutionary content is, roughly, the proposition expressed in a certain speech act. So the locutionary content of "A car is coming" is the same in the three cases mentioned above: that there is a car coming. (This includes what is meant as well as what is said.) The illocutionary force corresponds to the kind of speech act performed: informing, warning, or scolding. The perlocutionary effects are whatever the performance of that speech act otherwise causes to happen. E.g., I cause someone to take a picture, to jump back from the curb, or to feel shame.
Another important notion here is that of uptake. There is, unfortunately, no agreed use of this term, but the rough idea is that it involves a recognition on the part of the audience of what speech act has been performed. So if I say "Can you chair the meeting?" and you understand me not as making a request but as asking a question, then there has been a failure of uptake. Some authors regard that as amounting to a failure to perform the speech act in question: That is, on this view, if you 'misunderstand' me, then I have not in fact made a request at all. (Whether I've asked a question is a different matter.) Other authors hold that I have made a request, but it simply has not been understood.
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17 April |
Luvell Anderson and Ernie Lepore, "Slurring Words", Noûs 47 (2013), pp. 25-48
(PhilPapers,
Wiley Online)
Optional: Daniel Whiting, "It's Not What You Said, It's How You Said It: Slurs and Conventional Implicatures", Analytic Philosophy 54 (2013), pp. 364-77
(PhilPapers,
Whiting's Website)
Show Questions
One welcome fact about A&L's approach is how explicit they are about what they want to explain: the offensiveness of slurs. (We'll return to this point.) Their goal is (i) to argue against all views according to which the offensiveness of slurs is to be explained in terms of some offensive content that the slur conventionally expresses (in one way or another) and thereby (ii) to motivate their alternative view according to which the offensiveness of slurs is to be explained simply in terms of the fact that they are taboo, i.e., that their use is prohibited.
Section 2 considers whether (e.g.) "faggot" and "gay man" 'express the same concept', i.e., are synonymous. (So you can think of them as arguing against Hom here.) One complaint that A&L make here is that everything that anyone has ever been said about how these words differ in meaning would make "faggot" and "fairy" have the same meaning, even though the former is much more offensive than the latter. (They give a different example.) A second worry is that, on Hom's view (e.g.), it seems as if
(a) Elton John is not a faggot.
should (assuming the negation is 'normal' and not 'meta-linguistic') mean something like: Elton John is not a gay man who should be discrimimated against for that reason. Which seems straightforwardly true and, indeed, laudatory, whereas (a) is in fact every bit as offensive as "Elton John is a faggot". (The case where we are dealing with meta-linguistic negation is more complicated.)
Section 3 addresses issues about embedding and speech reports. The point here is that, if "faggot" had a different meaning from "gay man", then something like:
(b) Eric said that Elton John is a faggot.
should, one might have thought, simply attribute such an assertion to Eric. But A&L argue both that it is the person who utters (b) who slurs; it need not attribute a slur to Eric (though it might suggest that). The data here seem very muddy indeed.
Section 4 discusses presuppostional views. There are many cases in which use of a term seems to 'presuppose' certain facts. Thus, even the question "Has Bill stopped smoking?" 'presupposes' that Bill has smoked in the past; the same goes for "Bill has not stopped smoking". But presuppositions do not always 'project out', and one case where they do not are speech reports , as A&L note. So if the use of "faggot" presupposes that gay men are vile, then one would expect (b) above not to presupppose that, and so not to be offensive. But it is.
And here, I think, an interesting issue emerges. In a footnote that Whiting seems to have added late to the optional paper mentioned above, he writes:
Though I do not doubt that the mere mention of a slur can cause offence, I doubt that merely to mention a slur is really to derogate. (p. 369, fn. 11)
Whiting's point is that the offensiveness of slurs is not what he is trying to explain. It is, rather, the way in which slurs are used to derogate (i.e., belittle or demean). That is quite different. So what should we be trying to explain? There's a similar issue here about Camp: Some of her examples of 'non-derogatory' uses are quite similar to A&L's (28)-(30).
Sections 6-7 considers the view that slurs conventionally implicate offensive content. A&L note several advantages of this view: Most importantly, it explains why the offensive content of slurs tends to 'project out' so well, indeed, always. But they argue that the view then over-generates, since there are non-offensive uses of slurs. On the other side, though, if what makes a slur offensive is something about its meaning, then it is puzzling why the mere mention (quotation) of a slur might be offensive, since its meaning is irrelevant when it is just mentioned. Here again, though, one might wonder about the contrast just mentioned, between offense and derogation.
A&L present their positive view in section 8: "slurs are prohibited words" (p. 38), and the group who prohibits the use, in such cases, is usually the 'target' group. So the view is that "faggot" is a slur, and its uses are offensive, because gay men have deemed the word prohibited. But is it really true that the N-word is offensive because someone has prohibited its use? (Whiting raises this question in the optional reading.) It wasn't even very long ago that lots of white people used the N-word routinely They thought that was perfectly fine, because they were racists and actually did think black people were inferior, etc. If there was a "prohibition" on use of the N-word, that would have been news to them. An objection that seems to me more principled, but in much the same area, is that Prohibitionism gets the explanatory order backwards: Slurs don't offend because they are taboo; they are taboo because they offend (better: because they derogate and therefore offend).
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19 April |
Renée Jorgensen Bolinger, "The Pragmatics of Slurs", Noûs 51 (2017), pp. 439-62
(PhilPapers,
Wiley Online,
Bolinger's website)
Bolinger is also a talented artist, as you can see
here.
Optional: Geoffrey Nunberg, "The Social Life of Slurs"
(PhilPapers). If I had a view on slurs, this would probably be it. But the paper is very long, 73 pages, so you will see why we are not reading it. But if you find yourself interested in these topics, then you really should read this paper. It is close in some ways to Bolinger's view, and in other ways to Anderson and Lepore's, in so far as it sees slurs as largely a sociological rather than a linguistic phenomenon. But it is much more self-conscious about that fact. (Maybe there is a lesson here about the limits of philosophy of language.)
Show Questions
In this paper, Bolinger offers an account of the offensiveness of slurs that is entirely grounded in pragmatics. It is important to understand that her goal is limited in precisely that respect: It is only the offensiveness of slurs for which Bolinger is aiming to account. Slurs may have many other features, and she even mentions some of them on p. 2, and then again in the conclusion. Perhaps a semantic account is needed to explain some of those features. But Bolinger is claiming that no semantic story is required to account for offensiveness. In that respect, her view agrees with Anderson and Lepore's, though the details are of course different.
Section 1 makes a number of useful distinctions concerning the notion of offense itself. Bolinger distinguishes actual offense from (morally) warranted and (epistemically) rational offense, and notes that the hearer's offense may have its source either in the speaker's intention to offend, or in the inappropriateness of a remark (e.g., if I were use (not mention) the word "fuck" during class), or in various associations the word has. The latter are what matter most to Bolinger. As she notes, almost all views regard there as being some such association. Her idea, basically, is to take that association as a basic sociological fact, and use it to explain offensiveness.
The central idea behind Bolinger's account is that the "offense-generation profile" of slurs is strikingly similar to that of "rude" expressions, which include such terms as "damn", "bastard", and "motherfucker". So, she claims, we ought to seek an account of offensiveness that covers both rude terms and slurs. In this case, too, Bolinger claims (drawing on work on impoliteness) that there is, simply as a matter of empirical fact, a significant correlation between the use of such terms and the holding of certain sorts of attitudes (e.g., anger, frustration, etc). If this correlation is widely enough known, then the use of a particular expletive may reliably signal that the user holds those attitudes.
Bolinger's account of slurs is similar. To borrow some language from Geoffrey Nunberg (in the optional paper mentioned above), the idea is that it is not that racists use slurs because they are offensive but that slurs are offensive because they are the words racists use. For example, someone's using the term "faggot" to refer to gay men is reliably correlated with their holding hateful attitudes towards gay men, and that fact is widely known (as are the exceptions). To use that term, rather than "gay man" or some other non-pejorative equivalent, thus 'signals' that one holds such artitudes, precisely because that correlation is widely known.
Note that 'signals' in Bolinger's sense need not be conventional in Lewis's sense (Lewis discusses 'signals' extensively in Convention), though Bolinger does speak of some of them becoming 'conventionalized'. It's a nice question whether mere correlation is sufficient here or whether we need a stronger notion. As already noted, it is essential to Bolinger's account that the correlation be known, and one might now wonder whether it needs to be commonly known, in Lewis's sense, at least for certain purposes.
One question worth pursuing here is what work the "contrastive" part of Bolinger's account actually does. If there's a strong connection between use of a certain term and the holding of certain attitudes, why can't mere use of that term signal that one has such attitudes, whether or not there is some alternative term one might have used instead? I do not have an example to hand, but the idea would be that there is some group that one might not otherwise need to have picked out at all, but some other group decides they need a term for them, maybe because they hold negative attitudes about that group. In that case, it seems to me, the term would be a slur, even if there is no neutral equivalent. A possible example would be "TERF" (short for: trans-exclusionary radical feminist). Some people targeted by that term have claimed that it is a slur, and they have, for that reason, introduced other terms by which they might be characterized.
In section 4.2, Bolinger offers an explanation of why the use of slurs is offensive. What is that account? How convincing do you find her explanation of why the use of the N-word "by upper-class black males, particularly if they happen to be hip-hop artists" is not offensive?
In section 5, Bolinger argues that her account provides a good explanation of the facts about offense she had articulated earlier. Perhaps the most striking of these is in section 5.4, where she discusses speech reports and quotation. How important does the 'contrastive' aspect of Bolinger's account seem in this case? One thing Bolinger does not really explain, however, is why slurs are such an appropriate vehicle for derogation (which is a focus of many other accounts). Do you have any idea what she might say here?
There's a very interesting discussion of the uses of slurs in fiction, theater, and the like in section 6. I'll leave it to you, though, to comment on it should you wish to do so.
|
22 April |
Rae Langton, "Speech Acts and Unspeakable Acts", Philosophy and Public Affairs 22 (1993), pp. 293-330, Introduction and Section I
(PhilPapers,
JSTOR,
DjVu); reprinted in her Sexual Solipsism: Philosophical Essays on Pornography and Objectification (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2009), Ch. 1
For this class, we will discuss pp. 293-314, which contain Langton's defense of the claim that pornography subordinates women.
Optional: Catherine MacKinnon, Only Words (Cambridge MA: Harvard University Press, 1993), Ch. 1, "Defamation and Discrimination"
(PDF,
DjVu,
Féministes radicales)
Show Questions
Langton's focus in this paper is, obviously, on pornography, and there are many objections one make to her argument that are specific to the case of pornography. Her underlying idea, though, is that pornography is a kind of anti-women hate speech, and both she and other authors have, more recently, developed more general accounts of hate speech based upon the ideas in this paper. So, even if Langton were wrong about pornography, we'd want to pay close attention to the structure of her argument, and not just because that's what we, as philosophers, do.
In the United States, pornography is protected by the right to free speech. In this paper, Rae Langton—largely following the legal theorist, Catherine MacKinnon, but also drawing heavily upon the work of J.L. Austin—proposes to take that idea seriously, and to think about what kind of speech pornography is. Her claim is that it is speech that subordinates women. This claim has often been thought to be incoherent. It's the coherence of the claim that Langton most immediately wants to defend.
Discussion of this issue is necessarily intertwined with certain claims about pornography itself, and it's a shortcoming of Langton's treatment that she does not make clear to what exactly it is supposed to apply. Langton remarks, in her later reply to Leslie Green, that her "discussion has an implicit restriction to the kind of pornography for which a case might be made that it subordinates and silences women" (p. 92, fn. 7). But this is not very helpful, since different people will have different views about how extensive that class plausibly is. But we'll set this issue aside.
To understand Langton's view, it's essential to distinguish it from two other views that are in the vicinity. One would object to pornography on the ground that it portrays women as subordinate. So that would be an aspect of the 'locutionary' act performed by making a 'pornographic utterance'. Another would object to pornography on the ground that it causes women to be subordinated. That would be a perlocutionary effect. But neither of these is Langton's view.
Langton's view, instead, is that pornography subordinates as an illocutionary matter: It is alleged to rank women as inferior, to endorse the degradation of women, and to legitimize discrimination against women. She gives a number of examples to illustrate what she has in mind. But a contemporary analogy can perhaps be found in
Justice Kennedy's opinion in Obergefell, finding laws prohibiting same-sex marriage to be unconstitutional. His complaint was very much that such laws rank gay people as inferior, endorse their degradation, and legitimize discrimination against them. Note that there is something factive about the notions in play here. It is not just that the law effectively says that gay people are inferior. It actually makes them inferior by denying them certain legal rights available to straight people.
What does Langton mean when she says that pornographers subordinate women in the illocutionary sense? Not just that it causes women to be subordinated. Rather, pornographers are supposed to make it the case the woman are subordinated, in much the same way that an umpire can make it the case that a particular pitch was a strike: simply by saying that it is. So the illocutionary act is, in a sense, defined in terms of its effect, but the effect is not merely a causal consequence of the performance of the act (that is its perlocutionary effect) but somehow a constitutive one. Moreover, pornography does not just make people believe that women are subordinate but actually makes them subordinate.
Another important point, which first appears on p. 305, concerns the role of authority. An umpire's ability to call a pitch a strike rests upon a certain sort of authority that the umpire has; similarly for legislators, judges, and the like. So there is a question about whether pornography (or pornographers) have the requisite sort of authority as regards questions about gender and sexuality to make women subordinate.
Langton says there are three ways one might try to make the argument that pornography subordinates women in the illocutionary sense by, e.g., legitimating sexual violence or ranking women as inferior. (There's something I have always found strange about these arguments. They seem almost to commit the fallacy of affirming the consequent. They all seem to be aimed at the question whether certain necessary conditions for pornography to be subordinating speech are met. But even if they are, it will not follow that it is. Thoughts?)
First, one might try to explain the perlocutionary effects of pornography (e.g., why it allegedly makes people more likely to endorse rape myths) in terms of its illocutionary content. It is obvious, though, that this argument has all the problems the 'causal objection' to pornography has: There is no consensus that pornography actually has such harmful effects; studies disagree. (Even Edward Donnerstein, whose work Langton cites in this connection, has objected to what he regards as misappropriation of his work.) Moreover, as Langton notes, this is an argument by inference to the best explanation, and it is far from clear there are not better explanations. Indeed, so far as I can see, Langton says nothing in favor of the claim that an explanation in terms of illocution is better than any other, e.g., that these are purely perlocutionary effects of the depiction of subordination.
Second, one could try to focus on the question what message viewers actually get from pornography. But, as Langton notes, different people seem to get different messages. For some, pornography is "escapist storytelling". Others "take pornography to be something that ranks them, judges them, denigrates them, and legitimates ways of behaving that hurt women" (p. 311). It would seem, then, as if the people who 'read' pornography as subordination are, basically, MacKinnon, Langton, and other opponents of pornography. But then it's difficult to see how men who regard pornography as "entertainment" are supposed to 'get the message' that women are inferior, etc. It's a very odd argument.
In any event, the third strategy is the one Langton finds most promising. This is to investigate whether the sorts of conditions that would need to be in place if pornography were to have the sort of illocutionary content Langton says it does actually are in place. The most important of these, as mentioned above, is that pornography has to have a certain sort of authority. Pornography, on her view, does not simply say that women are or ought to be subordinate. It is not supposed to be like a Fox News host who says that Muslims ought not to be allowed to enter the United States. It is supposed, rather, to be like a President who signs an executive order saying that Muslims from are not allowed to enter the United States, and who thereby makes it the case that Muslims are not allowed to do so. Note, again, then, that the issue is not just whether pornography "has a message", nor even whether that message is (sometimes) misogynistic. The issue, at present, is whether pornography has the authority necessary, as it were, to enforce that message.
And so, Langton says:
What is important here is not whether the speech of pornographers is universally held in high esteem: it is not.... What is important is whether it is authoritative in the domain that counts—the domain of speech about sex—and whether it is authoritative for the hearers that count: people, men, boys, who in addition to wanting "entertainment", want to discover the right way to do things, want to know which moves in the sexual game are legitimate.... (p. 312)
As Langton notes, this is an empirical question, and it is far from clear how to answer it. But some studies have found that teenagers do often think that pornography portrays sex in a realistic way. Whether that amounts to its having "authority" in the required sense, however, is a different question, one we'll discuss further when we read Louise Antony. Still, if the problem is that teenagers think pornography reveals the truth about sex, then maybe that is the problem, and the right response would be to stop leaving sex education to pornography. (There is a reasonably balanced discussion of this issue by Peggy Orenstein in the
New York Times. See also
this web site which offers "tools for parents to teach the younger generations about porn".)
|
24 April |
Rae Langton, "Speech Acts and Unspeakable Acts", Philosophy and Public Affairs 22 (1993), pp. 293-330, Section II
(PhilPapers,
JSTOR,
DjVu)
For this class, we will discuss pp. 314-30, which contain Langton's argument that pornography silences women.
Strongly Recommended: Melanie Beres, "Sexual Miscommunication? Untangling Assumptions about Sexual Communication Between Casual Sex Partners", Culture, Health & Sexuality 12 (2010), pp. 1-14
(PDF,
Taylor & Francis).
Optional: Celia Kitzinger and Hannah Frith, "Just Say No? The Use of Conversation Analysis in Developing a Feminist Perspective on Sexual Refusal", Discourse & Society 10 (1999), pp. 293-316
(JSTOR,
Sage Journals), and Melanie A. Beres, Charlene Y. Senn, and Jodee McCaw, "Navigating Ambivalence: How Heterosexual Young Adults Make Sense of Desire Differences", Journal of Sex Research 51 (2014), pp. 765-76
(Taylor & Francis Online).
Show Questions
In section I of this paper, Langton argued that pornography might subordinate women. In this section, she argues that pornography might also silence women in two ways: First, it can make it impossible for "No!" to be heard as a refusal; Second, it can make it impossible for women's protests about their treatment to be heard as such.
The kind of silencing in which Langton is most interested is what she calls "illocutionary disablement": A case in which one is prevented, in some way, from performing a certain illocutionary act, even though one can utter the right words. Langton gives a number of useful examples of this phenomenon, so there should be no question that it is the sort of thing that can happen. Langton also gives a general argument that speech acts can lead to illocutionary disablement.
Let's take the case of refusal first. Langton distinguishes two kinds of cases in which a woman might unsuccessfully try to refuse a sexual advance. In the first, the woman's refusal is recognized as such but ignored. Langton suggests that pornography could encourage this sort of behavior "by sexualizing the use of force in response to refusal that is recognized as refusal" (p. 323). But one might well wonder whether that has to much do with the illocutionary content of pornography as well as whether there is much pornography that fits this description.
In the second sort of case, the woman's refusal is not even recognized as such: Her "No" is treated as coy, as insincere. (In the empirical literature, this is known as "token resistance".) This would a case of "illocutionary disablement": The very possibility of refusal has been eliminated. Here, Langton suggests that (some) pornography "may simply leave no space for the refusal move in its depictions of sex" (p. 324). The idea, I take it, is that some pornography portrays women as saying "No" but not thereby refusing; sex follows, and the woman is portrayed as enjoying it every bit as much as if she'd enthusiastically said "Yes!" In some way, then, such pornography is supposed to enact a norm that a woman's saying "No", in a sexual context, does not constitute refusal. Here again, one might wonder how much, if any, pornography fits that description. (The issue of pornography's authority is also still in play, as well, of course.)
Langton herself asks the question, "How common is silencing of this kind and the rape that accompanies it?" She suggests that it may be quite common, and it was at one time the "common wisdom" that much date rape is due to men's failure to recognize women's attempted refusals as such. This sort of view, which is known as the Miscommunication Hypothesis, was very much the common wisdom when Langton was writing, and it has remained so, at least in some parts of the culture. The view was subjected to heavy criticism from the outset, especially by feminists, but it has remained an important part of popular attitudes about gender and sexuality, even in the face of empirical work over the last twenty years that has called it into serious doubt. (The optional papers for this session come from the beginning and the end, as it were, of that work.) But if the Miscommunication Hypothesis is false, then date rape does not occur because men do not recognize women's attempts at refusal. It occurs for the same reason that what Langton calls 'simple rape' occurs. It follows that pornography does not silence women in the way Langton argues it does, because women simply are not silenced in that way.
Nonetheless, even if there is not illocutionary disablement in this particular case, the idea that there might be in other cases has been very influential. Indeed, much of the philosophical discussion of the notion of 'silencing' traces to this paper. To what extent does 'silencing', as that notion occurs in everyday discussions of racism, etc, seem to be captured by Langton's notion of illocutionary disablement? To what extent does it seem to involve some other phenomenon?
Langton also suggests that there might be a second way in which pornography silences women: It might make it difficult for women to protest their mistreatment. I myself do not find that suggestion very plausible---there are some obvious suggestions to be made about why Ordeal was being advertised in a mail-order catalog for adult reading---so we'll probably focus in class on the other case. But please feel free to comment on this one or to ask questions about it (or to make other suggestions about how pornography might silence women).
(Some of what Langton says about Linda Marchiano (Lovelace) and her experience making Deep Throat is at best misleading. It is true that Marchiano was, as she says, physically abused during the making of the film and essentially forced to partcipate. But the person abusing and coercing her was her husband, Chuck Traynor, not anyone who was involved in the making of the film.)
|
26 April |
Louise Antony, "Be What I Say: Authority Versus Power in Pornography", in M. Mikkola, ed., Beyond Speech: Pornography and Analytic Feminist Philosophy (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2017), pp. 59-87
(DjVu)
Optional: Louise Antony, "Against Langton's Illocutionary Treatment of Pornography", Jurisprudence 2 (2011), pp. 387-401
(PDF,
Taylor & Francis Online);
Rae Langton, "Is Pornography Like the Law?" in M. Mikkola, ed., Beyond Speech: Pornography and Analytic Feminist Philosophy (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2017), pp. 23-38
(DjVu). It would very much be worth reading just §2.5 of this paper, which is on authority.
For more on the question of pornography's authority, see Leslie Green, "Pornographizing, Subordinating, Silencing", in Censorship and Silencing: Practices of Cultural Regulation (Los Angeles: Getty Research Institute, 1998), pp. 285-311
(DjVu,
Academia.edu);
Rae Langton, "Pornography's Authority? Response to Leslie Green", in Sexual Solipsism: Philosophical Essays on Pornography and Objectification (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2009), pp. 89-102
(DjVu);
Nellie Wieland, "Linguistic Authority and Convention in a Speech Act Analysis of Pornography", Australasian Journal of Philosophy 85 (2007), pp. 435-56
(PhilPapers,
Taylor and Francis Online);
Ishani Maitra and Mary Kate McGowan, "On Silencing, Rape, and Responsibility", Australasian Journal of Philosophy 88 (2010), pp. 167-72
(PhilPapers,
Taylor and Francis Online)
Show Questions
In section 4.2, after a careful exposition of the motivations for Langton's account, and a discussion of its (in)significance for the legal issues, Antony argues that Langton's insistence that pornography is speech (rather than conduct) creates a tension in her account.
Not that it is terribly important, but Catharine MacKinnon was not, as Antony says, "one of the earliest feminist critics of pornography". To the best of my knowledge, MacKinnon enters the fray, in any serious way, only around 1983 or so, but by then the so-called 'sex wars' were well under way. Gloria Steinem's piece "Erotica vs Pornography"
(DjVu),
for example, was first published in Ms magazine in 1977 and 1978, and even she was a late arrival. (See Gayle Rubin's paper "Blood Under the Bridge"
(DjVu,
PDF)
for some of the history.) What is true is that the Dworkin-MacKinnon line, after it appeared, became something like the accepted view among anti-pornography feminists, all but replacing earlier views that had focused on the harms that pornography allegedly causes. (Nowadays, the causal view seems to have come back into favor.
Antony emphasizes that Austin sharply distinguished between a performative's bringing about a certain state of affairs and a report that that state of affairs obtains. In particular, performatives do not simultaneously describe the states of affairs they bring about. Antony gives a striking example: "I find the defendant guilty" has both peformative and 'constrative' (descriptive) uses, and it should be uttered performatively (by a judge, say) only when it could truly be uttered descriptively. But there is an ambiguity here that Antony notes later. The term 'guilty' has to mean 'legally guilty', not guilty as a matter of fact, if the performative is to make it so that the defendant is guilty. Hence, the description can only describe what the performative brings about if it is not "the expression of a constative judgment that the defendant is, as a matter of fact, the perpetrator of the crime", but rather as a judgement about what legal status they should have. With that alteration, though, the example seems compelling.
But we can usefully think of the description the other way. In that case, it records what we might think of as the 'appropriate factual basis' for the issuance of the verdict. (Compare "The ball is out", as descriptive and as verdictive.) It is important to recognize that the success of the performative does not depend upon the obtaining of the underlying facts. More importantly: "No single speech act can verdictively determine the condition that the correlative expositive claims to describe". I.e., the jury's determination does not make it the case that the defendant did commit the crime; the umpire's decision does not determine where the ball landed. (As Antony puts it in an earlier paper, these are not socially constructed facts, so they are beyond the scope of verdictives.)
There's a second example that Antony uses that is even more powerful: the posting of a job advertisement that excludes black people as candidates. Such a posting is conduct that is not protected by the First Amendment, not just an expression of racist opinion, which is protected, even though it is probably such a racist opinion that motivates the conduct. Antony's point is that subordination—what MacKinnon and Langton think that pornography does—seems to be more like the discriminatory job posting than it is like a racist essay. But then, ironically, what is problematic about pornography cannot be that it 'tells lies about women', e.g., that they are subordinate. To say so would be to conflate the descriptive with the performative. But that pornography has such descriptive content seems much more plausible than that it has any verdictive content. Nor does it seem terribly difficult to understand how, by expressing certain misogynistic attitudes, pornography could lead men to have "a host of false beliefs and absurd expectations about women". Antony returns to that at the end of the paper.
This brings to the forefront the importance of the question how pornography is supposed to bring about its effects. For Langton, as we know, it is supposed to be merely through saying that women are inferior that pornography makes women so. And for that, pornography needs to have a certain authority. So Antony turns to the question of authority in section 4.3.
After reviewing what Austin has to say about the role of authority, Antony draws an important distinction between authority and power. Authority, as Antony understands it, is always socially conferred, whereas power is a matter of 'brute facts' about one's ability "to make things be the way you want". The two are related but different, as Antony explains with some examples. Authority can lead to power, and cannot be enforced without it, but power can exist absent any relevant authority. (Can you unpack exactly what Antony means when she writes: "This is the message of the Black Lives Matter movement in the United States: it is the power of armed police officers, rather than their authority, that structures the lives of young black men—and that should not be so"?)
Antony's charge is that Langton conflates these two notions. She first points out that there simply do not seem to be the kinds of conventions that would need to be in place for pornography to constitute an act of subordination. But, even if there are, the question arises, yet again, how pornographers have the authority to issue their pronouncements on the status of women. What Langton claims is that pornography shapes men's beliefs about women. The evidence for this is at best equivocal, but set that aside.) But that suggests that such men regard "pornographers as epistemic authorities[,] as a reliable source of information about women, about their characteristics, and about their value". But that is an entirely different notion of authority, as Antony again explains through example. The danger, she says, is when epistemic authority meets power—which certainly could happen with pornography. But then "the problem lies in...men's believing what pornography is saying...", i.e., their accepting as true the descriptive content of pornography (where what are being described might be social norms).
Langton responds to this sort of criticism in "Is Pornography Like the Law?"
Authority can be epistemic as well as practical. ...Practical authority is usually a felicity condition for the issuing of exercitive and directive speech acts (e.g., a parent says "Lights out at 10 o’clock!"). Epistemic authority...is a matter of expertise, or supposed expertise. It is usually a felicity condition for the issuing of authoritative statements of fact, or "verdictives" as Austin called them (e.g., an umpire says "The ball is out!"). The law's authority is primarily practical, rather than epistemic. But epistemic authority needs to be taken seriously, especially because, as Joseph Raz observes, practical and epistemic authority may interact.... Suppose a doctor diagnoses a condition and prescribes a medication. Her epistemic authority on the subject of health is at the same time a source of practical authority, enabling her speech acts to have directive force as well as verdictive. Moreover, epistemic and practical authority coincide when a speaker enacts a rule by credibly reporting that it is a rule (e.g., "in our house, lights out is at 10 p.m."): norms can be brought into existence by someone saying or presupposing they are already in place.
I contend that this simply continues the conflation. How so?
Antony concludes, in section 4.4, by sketching a model of how pornography might nonetheless shape social facts. Antony here mentions an example she had mentioned earlier: the norm that women's bodies should be 'smooth and hairless'. It is worth thinking through this example. How would things have to be if there was a place for authority (in the relevant sense) in its analysis? Who might have it? How would it be established? To be sure, it is not unreasonable to think that media have an important role to play in shaping such norms. How might that work in this case?
|
29 April |
Optional Meeting
Jennifer Saul, "Pornography, Speech Acts, and Context", Proceedings of the Aristotelian Society 106 (2006), pp. 227-46
(PhilPapers,
JSTOR,
PDF)
For a reply, see Claudia Bianchi, "Indexicals, Speech Acts and Pornography", Analysis 68 (2008), pp. 310-316
(PhilPapers,
JSTOR), and for a rejoinder, see Mari Mikkola, "Contexts and Pornography", Analysis 68 (2008), pp. 316-320
(PhilPapers,
JSTOR).
If you'd like to read a really good and also really amusing paper, have a look at Saul's "On Treating Things as People: Objectification, Pornography, and the History of the Vibrator", Hypatia 21 (2006), pp. 45-61
(PhilPapers,
JSTOR,
DjVu)
Show Questions
Section I is mostly review.
Saul's first substantive point, made in section 2.2, is fairly elementary, but it is still an important one: Pornographic works cannot coherently be regarded as speech acts of any kind, let alone subordinating ones; to say they are is to make a kind of category mistake. A speech act can be performed with a pornographic work; only such an act could be one of subordination. I take it that this point is secure. As Saul mentions, it is easy enough to repair Langton's view. She goes on to argue, however, that, once we take the role of context seriously, the results are quite damaging.
As Saul sees it, the first question we must ask is what the right "context" is for deciding what illocutionary act pornography is being used to effect. The two most obvious are the context of production and the context of consumption. But Saul argues, via her example of the sign that reads "I do", that it cannot be the context of production that is relevant. I think Saul is right about this, but I am uncomfortable with the extent to which she seems to rest the argument on analogy (and intuition). A deeper worry is that it is difficult to explain the (alleged) subordinating effects of pornography if we focus on the context of production. At least within the framework in which Langton is working, those effects are the result of mens' attitudes towards women being affected by their viewing of pornography. If so, however, then it would seem as if it is the context of viewing that must be crucial.
I'd also suggest that there is really another question that is prior to the one Saul raises about what the right context is. It is what counts here as the making of an utterance, that is, the performance of some communicative act or other. Making pornography is certainly an act, but it is any kind of communicative act? I would interpret Saul, then, as suggesting that we should think of a 'pornographic utterance' as consisting in the display, to some audience, of a pornographic work. If so, then Langton's view must be such displays are illocutionary acts of subordination. This is at least a coherent position. (Saul prefers to speak of "viewings", but I don't expect the difference matters. If you think it might, feel free to say so.)
As Saul notes, however, this view is not plausible if it is understood as requiring that all viewings of pornography be subordinating. Here again, that seems right, but Saul does not really state the principle on which the point depends. What she says is that some audiences in some viewings might not "get the message" that women are inferior, mentioning anti-porn feminists as one such group. Here, however, Langton has a ready response: Such people absolutely do "get the message", in so far as they recognize what illocutionary act is being performed. So that serves to remind us that, for Langton, the performance of an illocutionary act requires uptake, in the minimal sense that one's audience recognizes one as performing that act. But, as Saul also mentions, it is hard to see why there could not be some people, at least, who would not "get the message", even in that minimal sense. So the more principled point is that wre have no reason to think that the uptake condition is always (or even often) not met.
Saul suggests, then, that Langton might reformulate her view as one about most pornographic utterances. I'll say right now that this is surely not the right move for Langton to make. Sheer numbers cannot be what are at issue. A better move would be to read "Displays of pornographic works are subordinating" as generic, so that typical displays, or something of that sort, were what were at issue. As Saul mentions in note 13, there will be problems about how to isolate the 'typical' displays, but it isn't obvious that this is hopeless. (Ideas?) In any event, I'm inclined to think that Saul's objections to the "most" view also apply to the "generic" view, though I'll leave you to think about that.
Saul then reminds us that Langton offered three sorts of reasons to think that pornography is subordinating, as an illocutionary act: (i) An inference to the best explanation based upon pornography's subordinating effects; (ii) The fact that some people do interpret it that way; (iii) The fact that central felicity conditions that would be required for it to subordinating are met (in particular, that pornographers have the right sort of authority). The difficulty, in short, is that it is difficult to see that any of these conditions, even independently, is met in most cases, and they often seem to be met in different kinds of cases.
|
30 April, 5pm |
Topic for final paper must be cleared with instructor
|
7 May, 5pm |
Final Paper Due
|